DB2 Administration MCQs

DB2 Administration MCQs

These DB2 Administration multiple-choice questions and their answers will help you strengthen your grip on the subject of DB2 Administration. You can prepare for an upcoming exam or job interview with these 100+ DB2 Administration MCQs.
So scroll down and start answering.

1: What is a federated database?

A.   A federated database is a system including a DB2 DBMS (federated database) and one or more data sources.

B.   A federated database is a database that exists on a cloud network.

C.   A federated database is a database that uses a Java wrapper.

D.   A federated database is a database that is totally isolated.

2: What object types is the lock mode S (Share) applicable to?

A.   Rows, blocks, and tables.

B.   Rows, blocks, and tuples.

C.   Rows, blocks, and blips.

D.   Rows, blocks, and units.

3: A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.Smartemp. Assuming no audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?

A.   - -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.Smartemp DATA

B.   - -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)

C.   - -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.Smartemp AUDIT ALL

D.   - -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5)

4: Which two of the following types of storage management methods are supported by DB2 OLAP Server?

A.   Relational

B.   Both Hierarchical and Network

C.   Hierarchical

D.   Multi Dimensional

5: When writing a query with a primary key, how would the DISTINCT clause be applied?

A.   It would be applied to primary keys.

B.   It would be applied to locked threads.

C.   It would be applied to redundant SQL statements.

D.   It would not be applied. The DISTINCT clause is redundant.

6: Why would you want to specify an optimization class when compiling an SQL query?

A.   So the organizer chooses the fastest access plan for that query.

B.   So the optimizer chooses the most efficient access plan for that query.

C.   So the optimizer chooses the slowest access plan for that query.

D.   So that Optimus Prime chooses the slowest access plan for that query.

7: Which of the following is required to use the IMPORT utility to import data into a table?

A.   LOAD authority on the table

B.   ALTER privilege on the table

C.   SYSCTRL authority

D.   INSERT privilege on the table

8: On the client side, what is linked with the DB2 Universal Database client library?

A.   The network.

B.   Local or remote applications, or both.

C.   Remote applications only.

D.   Local applications only.

9: When would phantom read phenomenon occur?

A.   When another application is running concurrently with DB2.

B.   When another application reads data that is entered.

C.   When another application inserts new data or updates existing data that would satisfy your application's query.

D.   When the system starts producing data without user imput.

10: Which of the following are fields from SQLCA

A.   (All of these)

B.   SQLCODE

C.   SQLERRD

D.   SQLERRM

11: What is an example of an environmental consideration in DB2 administration?

A.   Federated databases being affected by the user.

B.   Federated databases being detected.

C.   Federated databases being shut down.

D.   Federated databases being affected by server options.

12: If you wish to update your statistics after a change in your database, what utility can be executed?

A.   GOSTATS

B.   RUNSTATS

C.   NEWSTATS

D.   UPSTATS

13: What is the primary focus of performance tuning, and how should performance tuning should take place?

A.   Speed, and daily

B.   Efficiency, and incrementally.

C.   Performance, and yearly.

D.   Security, and hourly.

14: What is an example of an instance when the database manager would allocate memory?

A.   When the database is idle.

B.   When an application connects to the database.

C.   When the database is being compiled.

D.   When hardware is being installed.

15: REORG is a function that organizes data on physical storage to recluster rows, positioning overflowed rows to reclaim space and to free up space. When is it used?

A.   After segments of a tablespaces have become fragmented

B.   After heavy updates and inserts

C.   (All of these)

D.   After deletes

16: When is it best to tune your system?

A.   Quarterly.

B.   When the system is down.

C.   When you have identified the constraints needed to be relieved.

D.   Every day.

17: Which of the following is a parameter that would specify the maximum size of a memory segment?

A.   dbheapdb

B.   bdheap

C.   heapdb

D.   dbheap

18: Is the autorestart parameter configurable on-line?

A.   Yes, but it must be off-line first.

B.   Yes.

C.   Yes, but it must be turned off first.

19: Why is a primary key needed on a table?

A.   To support table check constraints

B.   To provide free space on each index page for new data

C.   To support duplicate values

D.   To ensure referential integrity between tables

20: Given the code: EXEC SQL DECLARE cursor1 CURSOR FOR SELECT name, age, b_date FROM person; EXEC SQL OPEN cursor1; Under which of the following situations will the above cursor be implicitly closed?

A.   When there are no rows in the result set

B.   When a COMMIT statement is issued

C.   When a CLOSE statement is issued

D.   When an OPEN Statement is issued

21: Why is the deadlock detector an important part of DB2 architecture?

A.   When a computational stalemate occurs, an external application is necessary to maintain the deadlock.

B.   When a computational stalemate occurs, an external application is necessary to break the deadlock.

C.   It tells the users how safe the system is.

D.   When a computational stalemate occurs, an external application is necessary to shut down the system.

22: When working with concurrency controls, what happens when the number of locks held on rows and tables is equal to the percentage of the locklist specified by maxlocks?

A.   Row escalation.

B.   Lock escalation.

C.   Lock reduction.

D.   Table escalation.

23: Which of the following DB2 objects allows multiple users to access data in a table with each user only being able to access certain portions of the data?

A.   Table Constraint

B.   Summary Table

C.   View

D.   Dimension Table

24: What is a DB2 IMAGECOPY

A.   It's a partial backup of a table (depending on certain criteria) which can be used in recovery

B.   It's a full backup of a table which can be used in recovery

C.   It's a full backup of a table which may or may not be able to be used in recovery

D.   It's a partial backup of a table (depending on certain criteria) which cannot be used in recovery

25: What is the benefit of prefetching data?

A.   It holds frequently accessed data in memory.

B.   It holds all the data in the memory.

C.   It automatically compiles SQL statements for you.

D.   It automatically writes stored procedures for you.

26: I have 5 SQL Select statements connected by a Union/Union All. How many times should I have to specificy union to eliminate duplicate rows?

A.   4 times

B.   Once

C.   3 times

D.   5 times

27: Why would you need to execute RUNSTATS regularly when using the SQL compiler?

A.   Executing RUNSTATS updates the optimizer so it can compile the data properly.

B.   Executing RUNSTATS optimizes the compiler so the updater can encode SQL statements sequentially.

C.   Executing RUNSTATS optimizes the data in the right order so the compiler can send it to the optimizer.

D.   Executing RUNSTATS provides the most current data which is used by the optimizer to create an effective access plan.

28: In a UNIX-based environment, where would the database manager configuration file be found?

A.   The sqletc subdirectory.

B.   The t-sqllib subdirectory.

C.   The sqldb2 subdirectory.

D.   The sqllib subdirectory.

29: Which of the following must be set to restrict clients from being able to discover any DB2 instances on a server?

A.   DB2 Administration Server configuration parameter DISCOVER to DISABLE

B.   DISCOVER_DB parameter to DISABLE

C.   DISCOVER_INST parameter to DISABLE on a DB2 instance

D.   DB2 Administration Server configuration parameter SEARCH to DISABLE

30: After entering a query, what is the first step the SQL compiler takes?

A.   Parsing the query.

B.   Generate remote SQL.

C.   Rewrite the query.

D.   Check its semantics.

31: Under what context is pushdown analysis utilized?

A.   Use with a federated database.

B.   Use with the standard database.

C.   Use with a large database.

D.   Use with an encrypted database.

32: What are EDUs responsible for?

A.   EDUs process most of the SQL processing for applications.

B.   EDUs process SQL.

C.   EDUs process the security functions to use SQL.

D.   EDUs act as a compiler to use SQL.

33: What calculation can you use to estimate your overhead cost?

A.   Average seek time in minutes + (0.5 * relational latency)

B.   Average seek time in miliseconds + (0.5 * rotational latency)

C.   Total seek time in miliseconds + (0.5 * rotational latency)

D.   Average seek time in minutes + (0.5 * rotational latency)

34: What is a scenario in which you would be using a single buffer pool?

A.   You are working on a test system.

B.   The system has errors.

C.   Your system is locked.

D.   You working on a broken system.

35: Which two of the following identify which users have SYSCTRL authority?

A.   The database manager configuration

B.   D&E

C.   The operating system security

D.   The database configuration

36: Which of the following is an important step in developing a performance-improvement process?

A.   Plan all of your adjustments and do them in one step.

B.   Make all adjustments in step.

C.   Make one adjustment at a time.

D.   Don't adjust the system's performance.

37: What does it mean if the the null indicator = -2

A.   The field is null

B.   The field has spaces

C.   The field value is truncated

D.   The field has blanks

38: What is the parameter to configure the default database path?

A.   dftdbpath

B.   dftdbpdb

C.   dftdb

D.   dbpath

39: Which of the following can be changed with an ALTER statement

A.   Constraint

B.   Tablespace

C.   Index

40: If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?

A.   The role

B.   The owner keyword

C.   The current SQLID (If set)

D.   The schema name

41: At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC) invoked?

A.   During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP panel

B.   At DB2 startup

C.   When DB2 has cached authorization information

D.   When executing a DB2 GRANT statement

42: Where would the optimizer gather information to estimate the amount of prefetching for a tablespace?

A.   The CATSIZE and EXTENTSIZE columns in CAT.TABLESPACES.

B.   The PRECAT and EXTENTIZER columns in SYSCAT.TABLESPACES.

C.   All of the columns in SYSCAT.TABLESPACES.

D.   The PREFETCHSIZE and EXTENTSIZE columns in SYSCAT.TABLESPACES.

43: What condition would lead to distribution statistics not being collected?

A.   Consecutive data values.

B.   Unique data values.

C.   Excessive data values.

D.   Equal data values.

44: What should be considered when specifying an optimization level?

A.   A query's use of active or passive SQL.

B.   A query's use of static or dynamic SQL.

C.   A query's use of PL/SQL or T-SQL.

D.   A query's use of logical or dynamic SQL.

45: What two types of configuration files does DB2 use?

A.   Database manager configuration files, and database configuration files for the database itself.

B.   Database manager compression files, and database compression files for the database itself.

C.   Database log files, and database configuration files for the database itself.

D.   Database cache configuration files, and database master files for the database itself.

46: If your columns are indexed, what clause would you run for the RUNSTATS command to collect statistics?

A.   ONLY ON KEY COLUMNS

B.   ONLY ON KEY STATS

C.   ONLY FROM STAT COLUMNS

D.   ONLY ON STAT COLUMNS

47: Given the following code: EXEC SQL EXECUTE IMMEDIATE: sqlstmt Which of the following values must sqlstmt contain so that all rows are deleted from the STAFF table?

A.   DROP * FROM staff

B.   DELETE * FROM staff

C.   DROP TABLE staff

D.   DELETE FROM staff

48: Which of the following actions will occur when issuing the command FORCE APPLICATION ALL?

A.   No new database connections are allowed

B.   Uncommitted units of work are rolled back

C.   Uncommitted units of work are committed

D.   Disconnect warning messages are sent to connected users

A.   Command Center

B.   Journal

C.   Development Center

D.   Operations Center

50: To prepare an embedded SQL program for use with a host-language compiler, which of the following database components is required?

A.   Application Development Center

B.   Binder

C.   Precompiler

D.   Stored Procedure Builder