Flight Vehicle Engineering MCQs

Flight Vehicle Engineering MCQs

Our team has conducted extensive research to compile a set of Flight Vehicle Engineering MCQs. We encourage you to test your Flight Vehicle Engineering knowledge by answering these multiple-choice questions provided below.
Simply scroll down to begin!

1: What does AGL stand for?

A.   Air to Ground Link

B.   Average Ground Level

C.   Adjusted Gross Landing

D.   Above Ground Level

2: What is the zero level or reference altitude for AGL?

A.   Mean sea level

B.   Average terrain

C.   Above ground level

D.   Ground level

3: What is the unit of measurement for absolute humidity?

A.   Grams per cubic meter OR grams per kilogram

B.   Feet

C.   Miles

D.   Inches

4: What is the absolute value of -3?

A.   Zero

B.   -3

C.   3

D.   6

5: What is the SI unit for acceleration?

A.   Metre per second squared (m s−2)

B.   Seconds squared

C.   Miles per hour

D.   Feet per minute

6: What is the rate of change of velocity of an object with respect to time?

A.   Momentum

B.   Force

C.   Acceleration

D.   Speed

7: The beginning of a pass is termed _____.

A.   Loss of signal

B.   Acquisition of signal

C.   Deserted satellite

D.   End of pass

8: Action is an attribute of the dynamics of a physical system from which the equations of motion of the system can be derived.

A.   True

B.   False

9: What does ADF stand for?

A.   Automatic direction finder

B.   Advanced data format

C.   All-digital forum

D.   Asynchronous data flow

10: What is the Advanced Space Vision System?

A.   A regular 2D camera

B.   A computer vision system not designed for the International Space Station

C.   A computer vision system designed for the International Space Station

D.   A system that uses regular 2D cameras to calculate the 3D position of an object

11: What is the main focus of aeroacoustics?

A.   Aerodynamic forces

B.   Fluid motion

C.   Aeolian tones

D.   Noise generation

12: What is the main purpose of aerobraking?

A.   Slows the spacecraft

B.   Reduces the high point of an elliptical orbit

C.   Increases the high point of an elliptical orbit

D.   Decreases the low point of an elliptical orbit

13: What is a balloon?

A.   An unpowered aerostat that remains aloft or floats due to its buoyancy

B.   An unpowered aerostat that does not float

C.   A balloon that is tethered to a fixed point

D.   A powered aerostat

14: What is a ballute?

A.   A cone-shaped balloon

B.   A toroidal burble fence

C.   A balloon-like braking device

D.   A parachute-like braking device

15: Which type of beam is typically used in beam-powered propulsion?

A.   Microwave or laser beam

B.   Gamma ray beam

C.   X-ray beam

D.   Ultraviolet beam

16: What is the absolute bearing of an object to the East?

A.   180 degrees

B.   90 degrees

C.   360 degrees

D.   0 degrees

17: What occurs when there is an increase in the speed of a fluid?

A.   A decrease in pressure

B.   A decrease in the fluid's potential energy

C.   An increase in the fluid's density

D.   A decrease in the fluid's density

18: How many half-elliptic orbits does a bi-elliptic transfer consist of?

A.   2

B.   1

C.   3

D.   4

19: What is bleed air?

A.   The exhaust produced by gas turbine engines

B.   A type of fuel used in gas turbine engines

C.   A measure of the efficiency of gas turbine engines

D.   Compressed air that is taken from the compressor stage of gas turbine engines

20: What is a booster rocket?

A.   A rocket used to launch a multistage launch vehicle

B.   A rocket used to augment the space vehicle's takeoff thrust and payload capability

C.   A rocket used to provide thrust for a space vehicle

D.   A rocket used for guidance for a space vehicle

21: What is a boundary layer?

A.   The layer of fluid in the immediate vicinity of a bounding surface where the effects of gravity are significant

B.   The layer of fluid in the immediate vicinity of a bounding surface where the effects of temperature are significant

C.   The layer of fluid in the immediate vicinity of a bounding surface where the effects of buoyancy are significant

D.   The layer of fluid in the immediate vicinity of a bounding surface where the effects of viscosity are significant

22: What is the definition of buoyancy?

A.   Upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes the weight of an immersed object

B.   A fluid's resistance to change in shape

C.   The pressure at the bottom of a column of fluid

D.   The property of a fluid that causes it to rise to the highest point in a container

23: The pressure difference between the top and bottom of an object submerged in a fluid results in a(n):

A.   Loss in volume

B.   Upthrust

C.   Net force downwards

D.   Net force upwards

24: The pressure at the bottom of an object submerged in a fluid is _______ than at the top of the object.

A.   Equal to

B.   Greater

C.   Less than

D.   Twice as great

25: How is cabin air usually bled off in aircraft?

A.   From the jet engines at the turbine stage

B.   From the landing gear at the axle stage

C.   From the propellers at the turbine stage

D.   From the gas turbine engines at the compressor stage

26: How is cabin pressurization typically accomplished for aircraft?

A.   Jet fuel

B.   On board generators

C.   Bled off from the gas turbine engines at the compressor stage

D.   Carried in high-pressure, often cryogenic tanks

27: What is cable lacing?

A.   A method of data transmission

B.   A method for tying wiring harnesses and cable looms

C.   A type of cable

D.   A device used to cut cable

28: What is the old cable management technique called?

A.   Cable ties

B.   Hook and loop Cable ties

C.   Cable lacing

D.   Cable management

29: What is Camber?

A.   The curved line formed by the intersection of a cone and a plane

B.   The force required to move an object up a slope

C.   The distance between the bottom of an object and the ground

D.   The asymmetric curves on the top and bottom, or front and back, of an aerofoil

30: Camber is responsible for the asymmetric curves on the _____ of an aerofoil.

A.   Up and down

B.   Top and bottom

C.   Left and right

D.   Front and back

31: What is the meaning of the term "canard"?

A.   An aircraft with a canard configuration

B.   A small forewing or foreplane placed forward of the main wing of a fixed-wing aircraft

C.   The main wing of a fixed-wing aircraft

D.   The foreplane of a fixed-wing aircraft

32: What is the point around which the resultant torque due to gravity forces vanishes called?

A.   Center of Pressure

B.   Center of Momentum

C.   Center of Mass

D.   Center of Gravity

33: What is the slight variation in gravitational field called?

A.   Torque

B.   Gradient

C.   Axis

D.   Gravity

34: Why is it important to make the distinction between the center-of-gravity and the mass-center for a satellite in orbit?

A.   To account for the torque caused by the variation in gravitational field

B.   To calculate the satellite's altitude

C.   To determine the satellite's orbital period

D.   To calculate the satellite's velocity

35: What is the center of mass?

A.   The point where the weighted relative position of the distributed mass sums to zero.

B.   The distribution of mass is balanced around the center of mass.

C.   The average of the weighted position coordinates of the distributed mass defines its coordinates.

36: Chord length is measured from which two points?

A.   Leading edge and nose

B.   Trailing edge and wingtip

C.   Trailing edge and root chord

D.   Leading edge and trailing edge

37: What is the cleaned configuration of a fixed-wing aircraft?

A.   When its external equipment is turned off.

B.   When its external equipment is retracted to minimize drag and thus maximize airspeed for a given power setting.

C.   When its external equipment is set to minimum.

D.   When its external equipment is removed.

38: What is the cockpit of an aircraft?

A.   The area from which a copilot controls the aircraft.

B.   The area from which a navigator controls the aircraft.

C.   The area from which a pilot controls the aircraft.

D.   The area from which a flight attendant controls the aircraft.

39: Which part of the aircraft does the pilot control the aircraft from?

A.   Cockpit

B.   Crew rest area

C.   Emergency exit

D.   Cargo hold

40: Which of the following cannot create a collimated beam of light?

A.   Laser beam

B.   Refractor telescope

C.   Perfectly collimated light beam

D.   Diffraction grating

41: What is a comet?

A.   An icy, small Solar System body that, when passing close to the Sun, warms and begins to release gases.

B.   A gas giant

C.   A luminous object in the sky

D.   A star with a tail

42: Compression is the application of balanced inward forces to different points on a material or structure in order to _____.

A.   Reduce its size in one or more directions

B.   Displace layers of the material parallel to each other

C.   Increase its size in one or more directions

D.   Have no net sum or torque directed

43: The choice to define compressibility as the opposite of the fraction makes compressibility positive in the (usual) case that an increase in pressure induces a reduction in volume.

A.   True

B.   False

44: In its simple form, the compressibility may be expressed as, where V is volume and p is pressure.

A.   True

B.   False

45: What is the term most commonly applied to hydraulic transmissions found on the accessory drives of gas turbine engines, such as aircraft jet engines?

A.   Single-speed drive

B.   Variable speed drive

C.   Multi-speed drive

D.   Constant speed drive

46: CSD is a type of transmission that delivers power to an output shaft that rotates at a constant speed, despite the varying input.

A.   True

B.   False

47: What is control engineering?

A.   The discipline of controls overlaps and is usually taught along with electrical engineering at many institutions around the world.

B.   A branch of engineering that deals with the design of control systems.

C.   A branch of engineering that applies automatic control theory to design systems with desired behaviors in control environments.

D.   A branch of engineering that deals with the application of automatic control theory to the design of systems.

48: 45 what does the bracket mean in this context?

A.   It is a reference to a different source

B.   It is an estimated figure

C.   It is an incorrect figure

D.   It is a range

49: At what Mach number does the airflow around the aircraft become supersonic?

A.   Mach 2

B.   The lower critical Mach number

C.   Mach 1

D.   The upper critical Mach number

50: In a centrifugal compressor, the pressure rise in the impeller is ____ to the rise in the diffuser.

A.   Almost equal

B.   Equal

C.   Greater than

D.   Less than