Microbiology MCQs
Microbiology MCQs
Answer these 200+ X MCQs and assess your grip on the subject of Microbiology. Scroll below and get started!
1: ________ are fixed macrophages found in the liver.
A. Langerhans cells
B. Alveolar macrophages
C. Lymphatic tissues
D. Kupffer cells
2: __________ is the process through which endospores are formed within a vegetative cell.
A. Sporulation
B. Sporangium
C. Pseudomurein
D. Slime
E. Germination
3: __________ pathways are those that function both catabolically and anabolically.
A. Homolactic
B. P/O ratio
C. Heterolactic
D. Hydrolytic enzymes
E. Amphibolic
4: ____________ is used to measure the amount of a chemoattractant encountered over time.
A. Acetylation
B. Methylation
C. Phosphorylation
D. All of these
5: A _____ is a measure taken to lessen the likelihood of pregnancy.
A. Condom
B. contraceptive
C. intrauterine device
D. diaphragm
6: A bacterium containing ________ provided with hydrogen peroxide will produce oxygen bubbles.
A. Catalase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Superoxide reductase
D. Peroxidase
7: A halotolerant facultative anaerobic bacterium would grow best in a ________ environment.
A. Oxygen depleted non-saline
B. Oxygenated saline
C. Oxygenated non-saline
D. Oxygen depleted saline
8: A major difference between exotoxins and endotoxins is that endotoxins are _____.
A. Physically part of the bacterial structure
B. Contact, vehicle, and vector transmission
C. A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food
D. Practice more stringent aseptic techniques
9: All of the following are found in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria except __________.
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Teichoic acid
C. Lipid A
D. N-acetylglucosamine
E. Lipoteichoic acid
10: All of the following are potential end-products of fermentation except __________.
A. O2, ATP, and NADPH
B. Substrate-level phosphorylation
C. Amphibolic pathways
D. NADH and FADH2
E. Pyruvic acid
11: An f+ bacterial cell __________.
A. Prokaryotes are widely used for bioremediation
B. Acts as a donor during conjugation
C. They carry out only nitrogen fixation.
D. Metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic species
12: Antimicrobial agents that damage the viral envelope __________.
A. Have no effect on bacterial cells
B. Prevent attachment of the virus to its target cell
C. Affect viral replication
D. Interfere with the formation of nucleic acids inside the virus
13: Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following except __________.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Yersinia pestis
E. Haemophilus influenzae
14: Chlamydia is the most prevalent _______________ std.
A. Fungal
B. Viral
C. Protozoal
D. Bacterial
15: Diatoms have cell walls composed of _____.
A. Silicon dioxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Chitin
16: Methanogenesis, not methylotrophy, is the __________.
A. Oxidation of H2
B. Oxidation of methane
C. Reduction of H2
D. Reduction of methane
17: Methanogens are an example of a/an __________.
A. Obligate aerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
18: Microbiologists study parasitic worms because __________.
A. They are microscopic as adults
B. They usually contain bacteria and other microbes
C. They cause diseases that are diagnosed by finding Microscopic eggs in clinical specimen
D. They were not studied by early microbiologists
19: One chain of alternating nags and nams is connected to another chain via _____.
A. Lipids
B. Tetrapeptides
C. Teichoic acids
D. Enzymes
20: One difference between algae and plants is that _____.
A. Plants have roots, stems, or leaves
B. Plants conduct photosynthesis
C. Plants are multicellular
21: Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.
A. Mesophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Commensals
D. Parasites
E. Halophiles
22: Prokaryotic operons typically include a(n) ________ and a(n) ________ with multiple genes.
A. Operator, promoter
B. Promoter; operator
C. Deletions; operator
D. Promoter; Mutations
23: Some ________ use group translocation as a means of transport.
A. Bacteria
B. Eukaryotes and prokaryotes
C. Protozoa
D. Eukaryotes
E. Archaea
24: Sulfanilamides interfere with __________.
A. Protein synthesis in fungi
B. Folic acid synthesis in bacteria
C. Anaerobic metabolism in protozoa
D. Protein synthesis in helminths
25: Terrestrial biomes are defined in a large part by ________.
A. Organisms from multiple species interacting in the same place
B. The interactions between living organisms and their environments
C. The plants that live there
D. Amount of moss available to the consumers
26: The main advantage of a spread plate over a streak plate is that the spread plate __________.
A. A mixed broth culture tube
B. Isolate bacteria and develop pure cultures
C. You think there may be a chance of a contaminate in your broth culture.
D. Allows for the calculation of cell numbers
27: The release factor (rf) _____.
A. Hydrogen bonding between base pairs
B. Binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA
C. Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi.
D. None of these
28: The site on the dna to which a repressor protein binds is the __________.
A. Operon
B. Operator
C. Promoter
D. Regulator
29: The synthesis of β-galactosidase is regulated by __________.
A. Induction and catabolite repression
B. RNA polymerase can transcribe mRNA.
C. It is always transcribed.
D. It binds to the operator when activated
30: Plasma cells ________.
A. Are large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis
B. Have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens
C. Are small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues
D. Have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody
31: Translation directly involves _____
A. Van der Waals interactions
B. MRNA, tRNA, ribosomes, and GTP
C. Unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide
D. Forms the primary structure of proteins
32: The toxic component of lipopolysaccharide is called _________.
A. The coral-dinoflagellate mutualistic relationship.
B. Glycogen
C. 2000
D. Lipid A
E. Less
33: Unlike sulfolobus, some archaea use ___________ protein(s) to accomplish cytokinesis.
A. CdvA, CdvB, and CdvC
B. FtsZ
C. Seg A and Seg B
D. Tubulin
34: Under a microscope, gram-negative bacteria (when dyed with the gram stain) appear _____.
A. Orange
B. Pink
C. Yellow
D. Brown
35: You can probably find algae _____.
A. That conduct photosynthesis
B. In polar regions or hot springs
C. On your dinner plate
D. All of the above
36: Which of the following statements about quorum sensing is false? quorum sensing _____.
A. Is cell-cell communication in eukaryotes
B. Is species specific
C. May result in biofilm formation
D. Is particularly well studied because of its medical importance
37: Two major structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ___ and ___.
A. Pili, ribosomes
B. Fimbrae, capsules
C. Lipopolysaccharides, techoic acids
D. Actin filaments, phospholipid membrane(s
38: The yeast candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of ______.
A. Parasitic bacteria
B. The transient microbiota
C. Other fungi
D. The normal microbiota
39: During the gram stain, _____ cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.
A. Gram-positive
B. Gram-negative
C. Both Gram positive and negative
40: _____ manual of systematic bacteriology is a manual of bacterial descriptions and classifications.
A. Pasteur's
B. Lister's
C. Bergey's
D. Leeuwenhoek's
41: A colony-forming unit is a __________.
A. Tool used to collect clinical specimens
B. Special type of growth medium
C. Commonly used isolation technique
D. Single cell or group of related cells that gives rise to a colony
42: A mrna codon is complementary to the dna ________.
A. Triplet
B. TRUE
C. RNA polymerase
D. Cytosol
43: Most enveloped viruses use the host __________ membrane as their envelope source.
A. Plasma
B. Nuclear
C. Mitochondrial
D. None of these
44: The body's ability to resist pathogens and disease is called ____.
A. Immunity
B. Vector
C. Infection
D. None
45: Media used to test carbohydrate utilization of bacteria often contain ph indicators ____________.
A. Since carbohydrates cannot be utilized, if the pH is neutral.
B. In order to determine if complex carbohydrates such as starch are utilized.
C. In order to detect if acid is produced as a result of carbohydrate metabolism
D. In order to determine if the medium is too acidic for bacterial growth
46: The e. coli lac operon has ________ operator sequences.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
47: The generation time of escherichia coli in the human intestine is ________ in laboratory culture.
A. At about the same rate as
B. Faster than
C. More optimal than
D. Slower than
48: The generation time of bacterial cells is shortest during the ________ phase.
A. Death
B. Lag
C. Log
D. Stationary
49: Acidic dyes are commonly used for ________ stains.
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Neutral
D. None of the above
50: A charged trna first enters the ribosomal ________ site and then moves into the ________ site.
A. P, E
B. A, E
C. P, A
D. A, P
List of Microbiology MCQs Mult...
Available in:
Microbiology MCQs
Вопросы и ответы по микробиологии MCQ
Preguntas y respuestas de Microbiología MCQ
微生物学 MCQ問題と回答
Domande e risposte di Microbiologia MCQ
Questions et réponses de microbiologie MCQ
Perguntas e respostas de Microbiologia MCQ
Fragen und Antworten zur Mikrobiologie MCQ
微生物学 MCQ问题与答案
أسئلة وأجوبة مايكروبيولوجيا MCQ
Pertanyaan dan Jawaban Mikrobiologi MCQ
Mikrobiyoloji MCQ Soruları ve Cevapları
