Crimes Against the Person MCQs (Criminal Courtroom Procedure U.S.)
Crimes Against the Person MCQs (Criminal Courtroom Procedure U.S.)
Welcome to MCQss.com's collection of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) focused on Crimes Against the Person. This page aims to assess and enhance your understanding of offenses that involve harm, violence, or threat directed towards individuals.
Crimes against the person encompass a range of offenses, including assault, homicide, sexual offenses, kidnapping, and harassment. These MCQs will cover various aspects of crimes against the person, including their definitions, elements of the offenses, legal consequences, and related concepts.
Understanding crimes against the person is crucial for individuals involved in the criminal justice system, including law enforcement officers, attorneys, judges, and those interested in studying criminal behavior. These MCQs provide an interactive platform to test your knowledge and comprehension of the various offenses that fall under this category.
These MCQs offer an opportunity to assess your knowledge of crimes against the person, identify areas for improvement, and expand your understanding of the complexities surrounding these offenses. By analyzing hypothetical scenarios and evaluating the appropriate legal actions, you can enhance your ability to recognize and address crimes against individuals.
Whether you are a law student, law enforcement professional, or simply interested in criminal justice, these MCQs provide a valuable resource for self-assessment and learning. Test your knowledge of Crimes Against the Person and deepen your understanding of this significant aspect of criminal law.
1: Ozona was in the cafeteria and saw Matt with a plate full of French fries. Ozona wanted the fries and forcibly wrenched the plate of fries from Matt’s hands. Under common law, Ozona has committed ______.
A. Bullying
B. Threatening
C. Mayhem
D. Battery
2: Factors that indicate an offender has committed kidnapping as opposed to false imprisonment is whether the asportation of the victim did any of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. Increased the danger and risk of harm to the victim
B. Decreased the opportunity for the offender to surrender
C. Increased the chance of psychological harm to the victim
D. Decreased detection of the offender holding the victim
3: Stalkers who suffer a break from reality represent a small number of cases and typify the offender whose “object of pursuit” is ______.
A. A stranger
B. A lover
C. A boss
D. A friend
4: The willful infliction of repeated harm through the use of electronic devices is known as ______.
A. Catfishing
B. Cyber fraud
C. Cyberstalking
D. Cyberbullying
5: It is legal in America to hate, but it is an illegal hate crime when an offender based on his hate ______.
A. Posts on the Internet
B. Speaks with hate
C. Hurts people
D. Telegraphs hate
6: The actus reus of rape has the following two components ______.
A. Negligent penetration and no consent
B. Force and absence of consent
C. Force and consent to the act
D. Reckless penetration and absence of consent
7: The federal law that is the basis for college campus disciplinary proceedings involving sexual misconduct when enacted was credited with ______.
A. Establishing honor board hearings
B. Elevating awareness of discrimination
C. Equal treatment of women’s sports teams
D. Changing the evidentiary standard
8: For sexual relations with other children or adults, children are legally unable to ______.
A. Consent
B. Resist
C. Refuse
D. Condone
9: In all 50 states, which type of sodomy is legal?
A. Between consenting adults
B. Between nonconsenting adults
C. Between adults and children
D. Between vulnerable victims
10: A requirement of first-degree murder is that it is committed with a cool mind, which means ______.
A. Premeditated
B. Willful
C. Deliberate
D. Nonconsensual
11: A felony that can trigger the felony murder room includes all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. Kidnapping
B. Rape
C. Robbery
D. Trespass
12: Robbery is different from simple larceny because of the use of ______.
A. Premeditation to steal
B. Force or threat of force
C. Scienter to commit theft
D. Causation to harm people
13: Parents can never be convicted of kidnapping their children.
A. True
B. False
14: A deadly weapon is anything used in a manner to cause serious bodily injury or death.
A. True
B. False
15: A killing done with a hot and enraged mind is typically first-degree murder.
A. True
B. False
16: _____ is known as assault that an offender commits while in the commission of another crime or against a victim who is a member of a protected class, such as a child, a law enforcement officer, or a prison employee
A. None of these
B. Aggravated assault and battery
C. Article I of the Constitution
D. Bail hearing
17: Is aMBER alert system nationwide system using media outlets to alert the public that a child has been abducted and to be on the lookout?
A. True
B. False
18: _____ is An aggressive action that places the victim in fear of an imminent battery; certain specific physical attacks are also defined as assaults
A. Embezzlement
B. Assault
C. All of these
D. Extortion
19: _____ is defined as intentional and unconsented touching that is harmful or offensive
A. Battery
B. Solicitors
C. Accessories
D. All of these
20: _____ is known as children cannot consent to sexual activity; any such activity is deemed sex abuse
A. Closing argument
B. All of these
C. Willful
D. Child sex abuse
21: Is cyberbullying using electronic devices to continually harass victims to cause emotional harm?
A. True
B. False
22: _____ is using electronic devices to continually contact, monitor, and surveil victims
A. All of these
B. Direct examination
C. The judge chose to overlook at the sentencing hearing
D. Cyberstalking
23: _____ is defined as an item used in any manner to cause serious bodily injury or death
A. Must be narrowly tailored to not burden speech
B. None of these
C. Make no reference to the content of the regulated speech
D. Deadly weapon
24: _____ is known as a standard that allows a jury to infer that the defendant had the specific intent to kill if he used a deadly weapon during the commission of a crime
A. Deadly weapon doctrine
B. The prosecutor
C. Arrest
D. All of these
25: Is deviate sexual intercourse unlawful sexual activity often involving minor children?
A. True
B. False
26: _____ is restraining someone’s liberty or freedom of movement by force or threat of force
A. To do nothing at trial because the prosecutor has the burden
B. All of these
C. False imprisonment
D. To compel witnesses through the court’s subpoena power
27: _____ is defined as a crime in which a death results from the commission, or attempted commission, of a felony (rape, robbery, kidnapping, arson, mayhem, felonious escape, burglary); all co-felons may be responsible for the death
A. Making a false statement and false swearing
B. Felony murder
C. Violating the public trust and perjury
D. None of these
28: _____ is known as willful, deliberate, and premeditated murder; the highest form of specific-intent murder
A. Increased socialization by video gamblers
B. First-degree murder
C. All of these
D. Internet casino fraud by not paying customers
29: Is hate crime choosing to physically harm a victim based on the person’s perceived race, religion, gender, or sexual identity?
A. True
B. False
30: _____ is an act of provocation so severe that it would induce a reasonable person to kill; raised successfully at trial, it may reduce murder charges to manslaughter
A. Arraignment
B. Affirm
C. All of these
D. Heat of passion
31: _____ is defined as the killing of one human being by another. Not all homicides are crimes; some are accidents, and some are justified
A. Evidence of defendant’s guilt
B. Homicide
C. Investigative steps not taken
D. All of these
32: _____ is known as sexual relations between nonspousal family members related by blood, marriage, or adoption
A. Protected space
B. Plain view zone
C. Incest
D. None of these
33: Is kidnapping the unlawful taking away and confinement of another by force or threat of force?
A. False
B. True
34: _____ is the historical term for premeditation
A. Avoid the embarrassment of wrongful identification
B. All of these
C. Malice aforethought
D. Avoid the indignity of being racially profiled
35: _____ is defined as an unintentional killing (involuntary), or an intentional killing done in the heat of the passion and without premeditation (voluntary)
A. All of these
B. Manslaughter
C. Motion to suppress
D. Impose a life without parole sentence
36: _____ is known as permanent disfigurement of a victim
A. Mayhem
B. All of these
C. Jurisdiction
D. Incorporation
37: Is provoking act must be so severe that a reasonable person would react with deadly violence; a precursor for “heat of passion” voluntary manslaughter?
A. True
B. False
38: _____ is sex against the victim’s will, without consent, by force or threat of force
A. The government
B. All of these
C. Daubert test
D. Rape
39: _____ is defined as laws that prevent the defendant from introducing evidence about the victim’s sexual reputation or previous sexual activity with people other than the defendant to discredit their report of rape, except where such exclusion would violate the Confrontation Clause
A. Engaged in hand-to-hand drug transactions for money
B. Made 24 trips back and forth up and down the street
C. Rape shield laws
D. All of these
40: _____ is known as a partner who posts to social media their former partner’s intimate photos shared during the course of the relationship
A. Preventing Internet dating fraud
B. Making computers vulnerable to viruses
C. “Revenge porn”
D. None of these
41: Is robbery the taking of personal property by force or threat of force?
A. False
B. True
42: _____ is a death that results from an offender’s intent to cause serious bodily harm or a murder that lacks one element of first-degree murder
A. None of these
B. Rape shield laws
C. Engaged in hand-to-hand drug transactions for money
D. Second-degree murder
43: _____ is defined as a crime typically engaged in by juveniles who text intimate photos of themselves to one another
A. Sexting
B. Subornation of perjury and obstruction of justice
C. Perjury and obstruction of justice
D. None of these
44: _____ is known as oral/genital contact or anal intercourse
A. Deviant cognition
B. Sodomy
C. Mental abnormality
D. None of these
45: Is stalking repeated acts of communication or physical harassment by a compulsive offender toward a victim?
A. False
B. True
46: _____ is typically nonforcible sexual relations involving a teenager and a partner older by 4 years or more
A. Indeterminate
B. Determinate
C. None of these
D. Statutory rape
47: _____ is defined as threatening violence to a specific person or to cause public pandemonium
A. Element
B. Terroristic threats
C. Fifth
D. None of these
48: _____ is known as federal law guaranteeing the equal treatment of the sexes in educational institutions that receive federal aid; used to prosecute sex-related acts at a college tribunal
A. Title IX
B. None of these
C. The “Psychological Coercion”
D. The “Interrogation Trick”
49: Is year-and-a-day rule doctrine that if victim died within one year and one day of harm caused by offender, offender would be liable for the death; advances in medical science have rendered such laws obsolete?
A. False
B. True
Crimes Against the Person MCQs (Criminal Courtroom Procedure U.S.)
