Criminal Investigations MCQs

Criminal Investigations MCQs

These Criminal Investigations multiple-choice questions and their answers will help you strengthen your grip on the subject of Criminal Investigations. You can prepare for an upcoming exam or job interview with these 40+ Criminal Investigations MCQs.
So scroll down and start answering.

1: Arrest occurs when the police take a person into custody for the purposes of criminal _____.

A.   Prosecution

B.   Interrogation

C.   Justice

D.   Both a and b

2: A document issued by a judge that authorizes the arrest of an individual is known as _____

A.   Arrest Warrant

B.   Custody Warrant

C.   Testimonial Warrant

D.   None of these

3: The record of individuals who maintained control over the physical evidence from the time it was obtained by the police to when it was introduced in court is known as Chain of Custody.

A.   True

B.   False

4: Competent Evidence is the evidence that is _____.

A.   Valid

B.   Of quality

C.   Both

D.   None

A.   True

B.   False

6: Generally speaking, not free to leave means _____

A.   Arrest

B.   Custody

C.   Isolation

D.   None of these

A.   Religious

B.   Scientific

C.   Social

D.   All of these

8: Exclusionary Rule is a rule stating that a search was_____, evidence seized from that search is not admissible in court.

A.   Inappropriate

B.   Unreasonable

C.   Unnecessary

D.   None of these

9: Exigent Circumstances are emergency situations that allow a search to occur with a warrant.

A.   True

B.   False

A.   Scientific

B.   Religious

C.   Social

D.   All of these

11: Hot Pursuit Exception is an exception to the search warrant requirement that allows the police to _____ if they are in pursuit of the subject and have probable cause to believe the subject committed a crime.

A.   Enter a home

B.   Conduct a search

C.   Make an arrest

D.   All of these

A.   Knock Search

B.   Door Search

C.   Talk Search

D.   Knock and Talk Search

13: Evidence that is significant and can help prove a fact is known as _____

A.   Necessary Evidence

B.   Material Evidence

C.   Relevant evidence

D.   None of these

14: A list of the rights that must be provided to an individual when _____

A.   In custody

B.   Prior to interrogation

C.   Getting arrest warrant

D.   Both a and b

15: Necessary Evidence is the evidence used to _____

A.   Establish a legitimate point

B.   Not to simply arouse feelings

C.   Not to shock

D.   All of these

16: An exception to the search warrant requirement that allows the police to search places and things where people do not have a reasonable expectation of privacy refers to _____

A.   Other Places Exception

B.   Special Places Exception

C.   Plain View Exception

D.   None of these

17: An exception to the search warrant requirement that allows the police to seize evidence when that evidence is in plain sight of the officer is known as _____

A.   Plain View Exception

B.   Other Places Exception

C.   Stop and Frisk Exception

D.   None of these

18: A traffic stop made for any traffic offense that then allows for other law enforcement action is known as Pretext Traffic Stop.

A.   True

B.   False

19: Evidence that relates to the case at hand is known as _____

A.   Direct Evidence

B.   Relevant Evidence

C.   Material Evidence

D.   None of these

20: A governmental infringement into a person’s reasonable expectation of privacy for the purpose of discovering things that could be used as evidence in a criminal prosecution refers to _____

A.   Interrogation

B.   Custody

C.   Search

D.   None of these

21: Search Incident to Arrest Exception is an exception to the search warrant requirement that allows the police to search ______ when that person is arrested.

A.   A person

B.   Person’s immediate area

C.   Person’s permanent residency

D.   Both a and b

22: Search Warrant is a document issued by a judge that authorizes a search of a _____ for purposes of seizing evidence.

A.   Person

B.   Place

C.   Vehicle

D.   Any of these

23: An exception to the search warrant requirement that allows the police to search the outer clothing of a subject for weapons based on reasonable suspicion criminal activity is afoot is known as _____

A.   Stop and frisk exception

B.   Vehicle Exception

C.   Plain View Exception

D.   None of these

24: Vehicle Exception is an exception to the search warrant requirement that allows the police to search a vehicle with _____

A.   Reasonable Suspicion

B.   Probable cause

C.   Both

D.   None

25: Scottish-born Allan Pinkerton formed the first private detective agency in the United States.

A.   True

B.   False

26: The Americanized “shire-reeve” of England became the state police.

A.   True

B.   False

27: James Fielding appointed a night watch and used men known as ______ to investigate various crimes and bring the accused before the magistrate to answer for their crimes.

A.   Pinkerton detectives

B.   Thief-takers

C.   Texas Rangers

D.   None of these

28: Which agency’s motto is “We never sleep”?

A.   Pinkerton detective agency

B.   Thief-takers

C.   Texas Rangers

D.   None of these

29: Of the reported crime, only ______ of violent crime was cleared.

A.   12%

B.   29%

C.   46%

D.   67%

30: Which is NOT a measure of a successful investigation?

A.   Identifying and arresting a suspect who is subsequently convicted.

B.   Every avenue of information and legal means of obtaining evidence has been exhausted.

C.   The public has been reassured the crime if proactively investigated and addressed by law enforcement.

D.   All of these are measures of a successful investigation.

31: Which is (are) stage(s) of the criminal investigation?

A.   Detection and reporting of the crime

B.   Preliminary investigation

C.   Sentencing of the offender

D.   A and b

32: The ______ study conducted in 1975 by Greenwood & Petersilia revealed that “information taken by the patrol officer first on the scene was the most important factor in determining whether an arrest was made.”

A.   RAND

B.   Kansas City Preventative Patrol

C.   International Association of Chiefs of Police

D.   UCR

33: During which part of the investigation will the investigator begin planning the steps necessary to move toward a case resolution?

A.   Preliminary investigation

B.   Follow-up investigation

C.   Task force investigation

D.   Prosecution

34: ViCAP stands for ______.

A.   Victim Information Concerns and Procedures

B.   Violent Crimes and Prosecution

C.   Violent Criminal Apprehension Program

D.   Victim Criminal Apprehension Project

35: _____ is evidence that alone may infer a variety of facts. The trier of fact will reach his or her own conclusion about what the presence of a piece of evidence ultimately means in a case.

A.   Circumstantial evidence

B.   Mail

C.   Both

D.   All of these

36: _____ is defined as generally, a crime that is no longer being actively investigated, usually due to a lack of leads or evidence.

A.   Cold case

B.   Rapid DNA

C.   Touch DNA

D.   All of these

37: _____ is defined as evidence such as personal knowledge or information that may prove or disprove a fact. Direct evidence does not require inference.

A.   Direct evidence

B.   Child

C.   Female

D.   None of these

38: _____ is known as additional resources or an extended investigation may occur in serious cases or those where sufficient evidence exists.

A.   Follow-up investigation

B.   Predicting

C.   Both a and b

D.   All of these

39: _____ is unit tasked with investigating crimes that require significant resources. Such squads in larger agencies may handle, for example, homicides.

A.   Major case squad

B.   Predicting

C.   All of these

D.   None of these

40: _____ is defined as a common way of referring to crimes committed against the body of a victim, such as an assault, battery, robbery, sexual battery, or homicide.

A.   Persons crimes

B.   Code Adam

C.   None of these

D.   All of these

41: _____ is known as the initial inquiry into a reported crime, usually conducted by a patrol officer.

A.   Preliminary investigation

B.   Child

C.   Criminal

D.   All of these

42: _____ is known as a strategy built on the idea of identifying the underlying causes of a crime or other police problem in devising a strategy to combat that problem rather than the symptoms.

A.   Problem-oriented policing (POP)

B.   By whom

C.   Where

D.   All of these

43: _____ is known as generally refer to those offenses that affect the property of a person or business rather than the actual person. Some examples include theft, vandalism, burglary, or arson.

A.   Property crimes

B.   Asphyxia

C.   Dysphyxia

D.   All of these

44: _____ is known as Those pieces of information or evidence that provide adequate information to move an investigation from the preliminary to the follow-up stage. Examples include pictures of a suspect or the tag number from a car involved in a crime, a viable way to identify stolen property.

A.   Solvability factors

B.   Primary Transfer

C.   Tertiary Transfer

D.   None of these

45: _____ is known as generally, those crimes made unlawful as the result of a community’s moral stance on issues. Examples include gambling, prostitution, and pornography.

A.   Vice crimes

B.   Documented Evidence

C.   Identification Evidence

D.   None of these

46: In general, acts of depersonalization are often associated with __________ murderers.

A.   Disorganized

B.   Homology

C.   Signature

D.   None of these