Information Security MCQs

Information Security MCQs

Answer these 60 Information Security MCQs and assess your grip on the subject of Information Security.
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1: Class __________ fires are safely extinguished with non-conducting agents only.

A.   A

B.   B

C.   C

D.   D.

2: One of the leading causes of damage to sensitive circuitry is __________.

A.   CPU

B.   ESD

C.   EPA

D.   HVAC.

3: The most sophisticated locks are __________ locks.

A.   Manual.

B.   Programmable.

C.   Electronic.

D.   Biometric.

4: Most guards have clear __________ that help them to act decisively in unfamiliar situations.

A.   MACs

B.   POSs

C.   SOPs

D.   OPSs.

5: ____ apps can allow you to lock your mobile device and sim card remotely.

A.   Content filtering

B.   Secure site

C.   Session cookie

D.   Mobile security

6: _____ refers to a situation in which keys are managed by a third party, such as a trusted ca.

A.   Crypto service provider

B.   Secure Shell (SSH)

C.   Digital certificate

D.   Key escrow

7: The ability to work on files at the same time as others is called ____.

A.   Compressed

B.   Coauthor

C.   Synced

D.   Cloud

8: A centralized directory of digital certificates is called a(n) _____.

A.   Certificate Repository (CR).

B.   Digital Signature Permitted Authorization (DSPA)

C.   Digital Signature Approval List ...

9: ______ refers to the deliberate falsification of information.

A.   Providing anecdotal information

B.   Narrative

C.   Disinformation

D.   Two to seven

10: ____ attacks are responsible for half of all malware delivered by web advertising.

A.   Canadian pharmacy

B.   Slammer

C.   Melissa

D.   Fake antivirus

11: __________ sensors project and detect an infrared beam across an area.

A.   Photoelectric

B.   Air-aspirating

C.   Smoke

D.   Thermal.

12: A(n) ________ will stipulate what an employee should do when he notices something like a virus.

A.   Malicious insiders

B.   Incident-response plan

C.   Encryption

13: ____ is the last phase of the six-phase crisp-dm method.

A.   Evaluation

B.   Modeling

C.   Business understanding

D.   Deployment.

14: ____ tags are one type of real-time location system.

A.   GPS

B.   RFID

C.   ENCRYPTION

D.   PDA

15: In a project schedule, the variable that has the least amount of flexibility is _____.

A.   Time

B.   Activity list

C.   Critical path

D.   Draft schedule

16: Objective measures of the user support or help desk operation are called ____.

A.   Performance statistics

B.   Abandonment rate

C.   Erlang measures

D.   Adaptive tests.

A.   CSIRT

B.   Noise

C.   HIDPS

D.   Red

18: ____ is the determination of the initial flaw or vulnerability that allowed an incident to occur.

A.   Field notes

B.   Anti-forensics

C.   Jump bag

D.   Root cause Analysis

19: A ____ is an agency that provides physical facilities in the event of a disaster for a fee.

A.   Time-share

B.   Service bureau

C.   Cold site.

D.   Mobile site.

20: An ____ may escalate into a disaster when it grows in scope and intensity.

A.   Electrostatic discharge

B.   Incident

C.   Slow onset disasters

D.   Rapid onset disasters

21: If an intruder can ____ a device, then no electronic protection can deter the loss of information.

A.   Signature matching

B.   Physically access

C.   Indication

D.   Anomaly-based IDPS

22: Incident analysis resources include network diagrams and lists of ____, such as database servers.

A.   Formal class

B.   Distance Learning

C.   After-action review

D.   Critical assets

23: One way to identify a particular digital item (collection of bits) is by means of a(n) ____.

A.   After-action review

B.   Cryptographic hash

C.   Expectation of privacy

D.   Forensic Toolkit (FTK)

24: The ____ team is responsible for recovering and reestablishing operating systems (oss).

A.   Storage recovery

B.   Vendor contact

C.   Alert message

D.   Systems recovery

25: The ____ team is responsible for reestablishing connectivity between systems and to the internet.

A.   Network recovery

B.   Data management

C.   Data recovery

D.   Response phase

26: ____ is a common indicator of a dos attack.

A.   Malware hoax

B.   Hybrid

C.   Concurrent

D.   User reports of system unavailability

27: A(n) ____ attack is a method of combining attacks with rootkits and back doors.

A.   Hybrid

B.   Matrix

C.   Private

D.   Blended

28: Most digital forensic teams have a prepacked field kit, also known as a(n) ____.

A.   Jump bag.

B.   Field notes

C.   Evidence seals

D.   Root cause Analysis

29: Idps, an acronym for ____________________ system, is a network burglar alarm.

A.   Password

B.   Honeytoken

C.   Semiannually

D.   Intrusion detection and prevention

30: ____ may be considered a form of physical protection.

A.   Router

B.   Worms

C.   Trojan horses

D.   Surveillance

31: _________ addresses are sometimes called electronic serial numbers or hardware addresses.

A.   IP

B.   DHCP

C.   MAC

D.   HTTP

32: A(n) ____ attack is a hacker using a personal computer to break into a system.

A.   Direct

B.   Subject

C.   Hash

D.   None of this

33: A famous study entitled protection analysis: final report was published in ____.

A.   1868

B.   1988

C.   1978

D.   1998

34: A signature-based idps is sometimes called a(n) ____________________-based idps.

A.   Knowledge

B.   Encryption

C.   Padded cell

D.   Confidence

35: Information security policies would be ineffective without _____ and _____.

A.   Audit; enforcement

B.   Rigidity; adaptability

C.   Protocols; the backing of iso

D.   Compliance; subjectivity

36: Raid ____ drives can be hot swapped.

A.   Proxy

B.   5

C.   Mirroring

D.   Britain

37: The senior technology officer is typically the chief ____________________ officer.

A.   Availability

B.   Subject

C.   Officer

D.   Information

38: The __________ is the difference between an organizations observed and desired performance.

A.   Issue delta

B.   Objective

C.   Performance gap

D.   Risk assessment

39: __________ is a continuous process designed to keep all personnel vigilant.

A.   Education

B.   Awareness

C.   Training

D.   Professional development

40: __________ is the process of classifying idps alerts so that they can be more effectively managed.

A.   Alarm filtering

B.   Partially distributed

C.   NIDPSs

41: All of the following are enterprise social networks or platforms except ________.

A.   Salesforce

B.   Resource

C.   Microsoft

D.   Biometrics

42: A(n) ____________________ is a potential weakness in an asset or its defensive control(s).

A.   Vulnerability

B.   Attack

C.   Social engineering

D.   None of this

43: A ___________ is used to transmit hidden information within normal network traffic.

A.   Multiplexing

B.   Stego-key

C.   Covertext

D.   Covert channel

44: Ethics are the moral attitudes or customs of a particular group. _________________________

A.   True

B.   False

45: Multimedia is anything that involves one or more of the following except ________.

A.   Audio files.

B.   Video files.

C.   Browsers.

D.   Graphics.

46: A _____ relationship exists when an association is maintained within a single entity.

A.   Binary

B.   Ternary

C.   Weak

D.   Unary

47: A _________ is the likelihood that a loss will occur.

A.   Reduction

B.   Risk

C.   Management

D.   Data

48: The two main places to filter spam are _____.

A.   At the host itself and the server

B.   The firewall and the LAN

C.   The proxy server and the LAN

D.   The host and the firewall

49: A ______ is, traditionally, made up of a series of eight 0 and 1 values.

A.   Byte

B.   USB

C.   Bit

D.   Data

E.   RAM

50: According to the text, a _____ is the quintessential gis.

A.   Database

B.   Table

C.   Map

D.   Intelligence