Offenses Against Public Administration MCQs

Offenses Against Public Administration MCQs

Try to answer these 30+ Offenses Against Public Administration MCQs and check your understanding of the Offenses Against Public Administration subject.
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1: Crimes of official misconduct are defined as the knowingly corrupt behavior by a public official in the exercise of his or her official responsibilities.

A.   True

B.   False

2: Which of the following crimes is one of the most damaging crimes against public administration and the administration of justice?

A.   Contempt

B.   Solicitation

C.   Fraud

D.   Bribery

3: The offense of soliciting a bribe does not involve which of the following?

A.   The money or item of value was promised, offered, or given with the intent to influence an official decision or action of the individual.

B.   The accused wrongfully accepted, or received an item of value from a person or organization.

C.   The accused occupied an official position or exercised official duties.

D.   The accused wrongfully asked, accepted, or received money or an item of value from a person or organization.

4: It is not a requirement of the crime of bribery that the individual who is bribed is capable of accomplishing the desired result by himself or herself.

A.   True

B.   False

5: Bribery is a misdemeanor in the majority of states.

A.   True

B.   False

6: In order for an individual to be found guilty of sport bribery, they have to be sports participants.

A.   True

B.   False

7: The common law supplemented bribery, extortion, and perjury with a fourth crime, obstruction of justice, designed to protect the integrity of the justice system.

A.   True

B.   False

8: Under resisting arrest, the suspect must prevent, hinders, or delays an arrest.

A.   True

B.   False

9: When an individual was liable but failed to report a felony or act of treason, despite the fact that the individual did not take an affirmative step to assist the offender, is known as compounding a crime.

A.   True

B.   False

10: Which of the following court recognized the necessity or duress defense focus public attention on the inability of correctional officials to protect inmates from physical violence?

A.   People v. Kaeding

B.   People v. Unger

C.   United States v. Bailey

D.   United States v. United Mine Workers of America

11: Is bribery giving, offering, or promising a benefit as well as demanding, agreeing to accept, or accepting a benefit. In other words, bribery involves two separate crimes—that is, it punishes giving as well as receiving a bribe, and requires an intent to influence or to be influenced in the carrying out of a public duty. Bribery does not require a mutual agreement between the individuals?

A.   True

B.   False

12: _____ is disobedience to an order or direction of the judge by one of the litigants in a judicial proceeding.

A.   Gangs

B.   Homeless people

C.   All of these

D.   Civil contempt

13: _____ is defined as accepting “money or anything of value” from a person other than one’s employer and using one’s position to benefit the outside individual.

A.   Commercial bribery

B.   All of these

C.   Choice of evils

D.   Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

14: _____ is known as knowingly receiving or offering an item of value in return for a promise not to prosecute or not to aid in prosecution.

A.   Misdemeanor

B.   None of these

C.   Compounding a crime

D.   Felony

15: Is contemnor an individual held in contempt of court?

A.   True

B.   False

16: _____ is acts intended to impede or interfere with the justice process or that demonstrate a lack of respect for the court by denigrating, demeaning, or disregarding the judge.

A.   Mistake of law

B.   Criminal contempt

C.   Tippers

D.   All of these

17: Is direct criminal contempt an insulting remark or physical assault on the judge, repeated disregard of a judge’s direction to limit the length of an opening or closing statement or cross-examination of a witness, or disruptive behavior by a spectator committed in the immediate presence of the judge or court or sufficiently close to the court to impede or to interfere with the judicial process?

A.   False

B.   True

18: _____ is knowingly fleeing custody following arrest or detention.

A.   Escape

B.   Driving with an unlawful blood alcohol level (DUBAL)

C.   None of these

D.   People v. Unger

19: _____ is defined as intentionally fleeing a law enforcement officer attempting to execute a detention or an arrest.

A.   Irresistible impulse test

B.   None of these

C.   Overt act

D.   Evading arrest

20: _____ is known as established that it is illegal for an individual or company to bribe a foreign official in order to gain assistance in obtaining or retaining business.

A.   Use of fire to commit a felony

B.   None of these

C.   Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

D.   Money laundering

21: _____ is known as an unlawful payment made to reward a public official for action taken or that will be taken in the future.

A.   Gratuity

B.   Mala prohibita

C.   None of these

D.   Misdemeanor

22: Is inconsistent statements divergent statements made under oath within the period of the statute of limitations, in which the prosecution may establish falsity by offering both statements into evidence without specifying which of the two statements is false. The defendant may offer the defense that he or she genuinely believed at the time that each of the statements was true?

A.   True

B.   False

23: _____ is acts that occur outside the presence of the court that impede or interfere with the judicial process.

A.   None of these

B.   Breach of peace

C.   Law against noise

D.   Indirect criminal contempt

24: _____ is defined as the power to punish “disrespectful and disorderly” behavior as well as individuals who refuse a subpoena to testify or to submit documents.

A.   The administrative law

B.   All of these

C.   Legislative contempt

D.   The common law

25: _____ is known as knowledge a felony was committed; failure to notify the authorities of the crime; and taking affirmative steps to conceal the crime, such as destruction of evidence.

A.   Misprision of a felony

B.   Household burglary

C.   Property crime

D.   All of these

26: Is obstruction of justice purposely obstructing, impairing, or perverting the administration of justice by force, violence, physical interference, obstacle, breach of official duty, or any other unlawful act or attempts to undertake these acts?

A.   False

B.   True

27: _____ is corrupt behavior by a government officer in the exercise of the duties of his or her official responsibilities that may entail malfeasance, misfeasance, or nonfeasance.

A.   None of these

B.   Disclose or abstain doctrine

C.   Official misconduct

D.   Crime

28: _____ is defined as knowledge of a false statement made under oath and material to the proceedings.

A.   American Revolution

B.   Perjury

C.   All of these

D.   Civil War

29: _____ is known as occurs when, in the same “continuous” proceeding, an individual states that an earlier statement is false. The recantation must take place before the perjury “substantially affected the proceedings” and before it became manifest “that the falsification was or would be exposed.”

A.   Attempt

B.   Recantation

C.   Conspiracy

D.   All of these

30: Is resisting arrest knowingly or intentionally fleeing from a law enforcement officer after the officer has by “visible or audible means . . . identified himself or herself and ordered the person to stop.”?

A.   False

B.   True

31: _____ is offering of a bribe to influence a sporting event or accepting such bribes.

A.   Sports bribery

B.   All of these

C.   Duress

D.   A state legislature.

32: _____ is defined as intentionally inducing another person to testify under oath knowing that the testimony constituted perjury. The crime is complete once an individual solicits another person to commit perjury.

A.   Subornation of perjury

B.   Breach of peace

C.   None of these

D.   Deadly force

33: _____ is known as knowingly and intentionally removing, altering, concealing, or destroying evidence to be offered in a present or future official proceeding.

A.   Tampering with evidence

B.   None of these

C.   Environmental crimes

D.   Concurrence

34: Is two-witness rule rule providing that a conviction for perjury is required to be based on the testimony of two witnesses or must be based on the testimony of one witness and supporting (corroborating) evidence such as a confession or a document?

A.   True

B.   False

35: Two recent periods of large-scale bureaucratic expansion were ________.

A.   The 1930s and the 1960s

B.   The 1920s and the 1980s

C.   The 1910s and the 1990s

D.   The 1930s and the 1950s