Principles of Management MCQs
Principles of Management MCQs
Answer these 300+ Principles of Management MCQs and see how sharp is your knowledge of Principles of Management. Scroll down and let's start!
1: _____ is a measure of the intensity of competitive behavior among companies in an industry.
A. Bargaining power of firms
B. Character of the rivalry
C. Threat of new entrants
D. Threat of substitute products
2: _____ is defined as the knowledge, tools, and techniques used to transform inputs into outputs.
A. Deskilling
B. Entropy
C. Synergy
D. Technology
E. Creativity
3: _____ is(are) included in an organization's task environment.
A. Government
B. Suppliers
C. Accounting procedures
D. Demographic characteristics
E. Technology
4: A learning organization develops the capability to ________.
A. Continuously learn, adapt, and change Correct
B. The group develops cohesiveness Correct
C. Norming Correct
D. Felt themselves a part of the group Correct
5: A product’s quality is determined by its ____.
A. Durability
B. Durability, reliability, and serviceability
C. Used with dependent demand systems
D. Productivity matters because it produces a higher standard of living
6: Changes in any sector of the general environment ____.
A. Will typically not impact most organizations
B. Tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle
C. Inhibit the innovation process
D. Influence customers first and then suppliers
E. Will eventually affect most organizations
7: In the _____ stage of the product life cycle, organizations focus on building primary demand.
A. Market introduction
B. Screening
C. Market maturity
D. Market growth
8: Two basic ethical ideas underpin the caux principles: kyosei and _____.
A. Human dignity
B. Honesty
C. Integrity
D. Commitment
E. Economic growth
9: Work-family conflict is a type of _____ stressor.
A. Nonwork hindrance
B. Primary work challenge
C. Nonwork challenge
D. Work hindrance
10: To identify a problem, a manager ________.
A. Which of these is the best definition of the concept of satisfice
B. What does it mean for a decision-maker to maximize value
C. Can cause people in a group to fail to express their true opinions.
D. Compares the current state of affairs with some standard or goal
11: In the context of leadership, power is defined as the ability to _____ other people.
A. Coerce
B. Control
C. Change
D. Lead
E. Influence
12: To improve workplace diversity, a manager might ________.
A. Advertise in ethnic newspapers and Internet sites
B. Tighten his recruiting net
C. Solicit referrals from existing employees
D. Post a notice that states he is an equal opportunity employer
13: As direct competitors, ups and fedex would have ____.
A. A low degree of resource variability
B. A high degree of market commonality
C. A low degree of competitive inertia
D. A low degree of market commonality
E. A high degree of resource synergy
14: As production moves up, the average cost per unit decreases because ________.
A. Fixed costs are spread over more units
B. Of increasing diseconomies of scale
C. Variable costs decrease
D. Revenue increases
E. Overhead cost decreases
15: The more uncertain a situation is, the more ________ plans must be.
A. Flexible
B. Unspecific
C. Long term.
D. Short term
16: Most training is directed at upgrading and improving an employee's ________ skills.
A. Financial
B. Technical
C. Problem-solving
D. Interpersonal
E. Social
17: __________ programs allow choice to personalize benefits within a set dollar allowance.
A. Family friendly
B. Flexible benefits
C. Employee assistance
D. Collective bargaining
18: _______ goals are those that an organization actually pursues.
A. Directional
B. Operational
C. Strategic
D. Stated
E. Real
19: A team has finally matured into a fully-functioning team at the ____ stage of development.
A. Conforming
B. Performing
C. De-norming
D. Norming
20: Equity has _____ effect on citizenship behavior and _____ effect on counterproductive behavior.
A. No; a moderate positiv
B. Emoderate negative; a strong negative
C. A strong negative; a moderate positive
D. A moderate positive; a moderate negative
E. A strong positive; a strong negative
21: The last step in the basic model of ethical decision making is to ____.
A. Monitor the results
B. Determine benchmarks
C. Act on the situation
D. Select an ethical leade
22: The least amount of team autonomy is found in ____.
A. Self-managing teams
B. Autonomous teams
C. Ad hoc committees
D. Traditional work groups
23: The thinking underlying the domain of ____ is the closest to the justice approach.
A. Social responsibility
B. Free choice
C. Law
D. Discretionary responsibility
24: The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as ____.
A. Downward
B. Horizontal
C. And upward
D. All of these
25: The two parts of reinforcement are ____.
A. Reinforcement temporality and reinforcement administration
B. Positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement
C. Continuous reinforcement and intermittent reinforcement
D. Reinforcement contingencies and schedules of reinforcement
26: For workers to truly accept organizational goals, the workers must ____.
A. Respond to an autocratic management style
B. Trust management
C. Not require any more training in order to achieve the goal
D. Operate outside the organizational communication channel
E. Do none of these
27: Formal performance appraisals are used more frequently in countries that ________.
A. Value status quo and rigidity
B. Are low in assertiveness
C. Are low in uncertainty avoidance
D. Are low in in-group collectivism
E. Have long-term orientation
28: Missing meetings is a form of _____ withdrawal.
A. Psychological
B. Physical
C. Cultural
D. Corporate
29: Strategies to manage dysfunctional conflict do not include _____ the conflict.
A. Control
B. Arbitrate
C. Mediate
D. Accept
E. Encouraged
30: The basic model of ethical decision making ____
A. Monitor the results
B. Determine benchmarks
C. Is not accurately described by any of these
D. Select an ethical leader
31: The behavioral structured interview is built on the assumption that ________.
A. Past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior
B. Technical knowledge and skills are the best predictor of job performance
C. Personality is the best predictor of job performance
D. Personality and mood are highly correlated
32: The goals of the compression approach to innovation are ____.
A. Speed, lower costs, and incremental change of dominant design
B. The development of milestones and the comparison of actual milestones with forecasts
C. The establishment of a dominant design and speed
D. Absolute-time management and the creation of a dominant design
33: The highest level of team autonomy is found in ____.
A. Self designing work groups
B. Traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams
C. Team performance rather than individual performance
D. None of these
34: Using 360-degree feedback appraisals to trigger pay and personnel decisions puts ______ at risk.
A. Trust
B. Change
C. Feedback
D. Performance
35: Work-life conflicts became noticeable in the 1980s when ________.
A. The rate of inflation started increasing
B. Baby boomers' parents began to age
C. Men started giving more importance to family time
D. Work loads became historically heavier
E. Women, with dependent children, started entering the workforce
36: Mobile commerce (m-commerce) is based on the _____ protocol.
A. Token Ring
B. Wireless Application
C. Ethernet
D. Wi-Fi Protected
37: The last step in effective planning is to ____.
A. Maintain flexibility in planning
B. Develop long-term action plans
C. Develop goal commitment
D. All of these
38: According to ____, people will be motivated when they perceive they are being treated fairly.
A. Job performance
B. Motivation
C. Equity theory
D. Satisfaction
39: According to alderfer's erg theory, the lowest-order need is ____.
A. Relatedness
B. Existence
C. Physiological needs
D. Empathy
E. Ego-related
40: With surface-level diversity, differences are immediately observable, easy to measure, and ____.
A. A negative way of bundling employees
B. Typically unchangeable
C. Culturally specific
D. Irrelevant to work behavior
41: The purpose of multifunctional teams is to ____.
A. Allow organizations to concentrate on their internal environments and ignore the external environments until they have completed the brainstorming process
B. Were primarily used by dot-coms and are no longer popular
C. Speed innovation through early identification of new ideas or problems that would typically not have been generated until much later
D. Do not typically use milestones because of group cohesiveness
42: Ethical behavior covers a ________ range of conduct than does legal behavior.
A. Wider
B. More narrow
C. Smaller
D. Less demanding
43: Everyday low pricing is most suitable if ________.
A. Consumers are willing to perform activities such as clip coupons to avail of discounts
B. Consumers tend to associate price with quality
C. Customers are insensitive to changes in price
D. The cost of conducting frequent sales and promotions is high
E. Consumers have sufficient time to find the best prices
44: Culture tends to differ between _____, but appears similar within _____.
A. Organizations, industries
B. People, organizations
C. Groups, industries
D. Organizations, groups
E. Industries, geographical regions
45: Customer-driven marketing is most effective when ________.
A. Clear need exists among customers, but the need is difficult to identify
B. Customers do not know what they want but are easily persuaded
C. Customers seek new products and technological innovations
D. Clear needs exist and customers know what their needs are
46: Innovation requires the coordination that occurs with the _____ .
A. Top-down approach
B. Bottom-up approach
C. Horizontal linkage model
47: A _____ specifies a target market and a related marketing mix.
A. Marketing strategy
B. Market program
C. Marketing report
D. Marketing survey
E. Market test
48: The ______ are strategic, tactical, and operational.
A. Three levels of planning
B. Tactical planning.
C. Operational goals
D. None of the above
49: Management by walking around is a ________ control.
A. Concurrent
B. Feedback
C. Disciplinary
D. Benchmark
50: Unsupervised data mining is particularly good at identifying ____.
A. Data clusters
B. Sequence patterns
C. Predictive patterns
D. All of these
51: The organization's ____ is the basic reason for existence.
A. Mission
B. H-form Design
C. M-form design
D. Purpose
52: The step in the decision-making process where you demonstrate your creativity is to ________.
A. Employee Referral
B. Collect information
C. Develop objectives
D. Develop alternatives
53: _____ is power sharing, or the delegation of power or authority to subordinates in an organization.
A. Engagement
B. Synergy
C. Motivation
D. Empowerment
E. Leadership
54: _______ is the primary reason that entrepreneurs create business plans.
A. Both management and subordinates participate.
B. Writing a mission statement, creating a vision statement, and strategic planning
C. Few needs, many customers; broad needs, few customers; broad needs, many customers
D. To get financing and think through important details
55: _____ is the satisfaction of some need.
A. A goal
B. A Plan
C. Game
D. None of these
56: _____ is a new technological design or process that becomes the accepted market standard.
A. ​Dominant design
B. Creative design
C. Incremental change
D. Technological discontinuity
57: _____ is an individual outcome that is directly affected by job satisfaction.
A. Organizational culture
B. Personality
C. Motivation
D. Organizational commitment
58: _____ is defined as a firm's purpose or reason for existing.
A. Company mission
B. Environmental Scanning
C. Immutability
D. None
59: _____ are the underlying qualities and desirable behaviors that are important to an organization.
A. Organizational culture
B. Values
C. Unconscious assumptions
D. None
60: _____ is(are) categories of sexual harassment.
A. Inappropriate/offensive
B. Coercion with threat of punishment
C. Solicitation with promise of reward
D. Generalized
E. All of these
61: _____ refer to the pay that employees receive over a fixed period, most often weekly or monthly.
A. Commissions
B. Salaries
C. Wages
D. Bonuses
62: _____ refers to a change in the attitudes and behaviors of a few employees in the organization.
A. Organization change
B. Organization development
C. People change
D. Culture change
63: ______ leadership approaches attempt to determine the unique behaviors used by effective leaders.
A. Behavioral
B. Coaching
C. Affiliative
D. Laissez-Faire
64: A _____ provides an organization with vision and leadership in the area of business conduct.
A. Spiritual Leader
B. Corporate Ethics Officer
C. Disseminator
D. Disturbance Handler
65: A _____ resource is a resource that is not controlled or possessed by many competing firms.
A. Valuable
B. Rare
C. Difficult to imitate
D. Nonsubstitutable
66: A _____ span of control creates a _____ organization structure.
A. Wide; flat
B. Tall; flat
C. Moderate; narrow
D. Narrow; flat
E. Flat; moderate
67: A disadvantage of using contingent workers is that they _____.
A. Contingent workers may pass on information about corporate processes and strategies to subsequent clients who could be competitors
B. Contingent workers may attempt to form a union
C. Contingent workers can demand payment for health insurance and retirement benefits
D. Contingent workers avoid the need to hire new employees and then let them go when staffing needs decrease
68: A(n) ____ lists the specific steps, people, resources, and time period for accomplishing a goal.
A. Strategy
B. Proximal goal
C. Distal goal
D. Action plan
69: According to the competing values framework, clan, adhocracy, market, and hierarchy are ____.
A. Organizational values
B. Industry cultural standards
C. Organizational cultures
70: According to the contingency theory of leadership, international managers ________.
A. Must try to enforce the parent-country norms across foreign subsidiaries
B. Must adjust their leadership behaviors according to the context, norms,attitudes, and other variables in the host country
C. Must rigidly conform to the motivational theories and practices of the parentcountry
D. Must not link performance with reward
71: All organizations need _____ to achieve high performance.
A. Diversity of thought
B. Passive bias
C. Ethnocentrism
D. High power distance
72: An organization in which lower-level managers make important decisions is a(n) _____ organization.
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Divisional
73: Budgets are an example of ____ planning
A. Operational
B. Effective
C. Options-based
74: Extrinsic rewards are ____
A. Exemplified by bonuses, trophies, and plaques
B. Rewards associated with performing a task for its own sake
C. Exemplified by a sense of accomplishment at the conclusion of a difficult assignment
D. Much more effective motivators than intrinsic rewards
E. Intangible
75: If an employee does not exhibit a desired behavior, a manager might use ________.
A. Positive reinforcement by reducing the threat of a punishment
B. Disappearance to make a behavior disappear
C. Shaping to guide the employee to learn the desired behavior
76: In organizational culture, control refers to _____.
A. The degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
B. The degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior
C. The degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results
D. The degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
77: Introducing a practice that is new to the industry is called a(n) ______ change.
A. Revolutionary
B. Radically innovative
C. Adaptive
D. Reactive
E. Innovative
78: Research shows that job satisfaction has _____ correlation with normative commitment.
A. Moderate weak
B. Weak positive
C. Weak negative
D. Moderate
E. Strong positive
79: Strategic position emerges from three sources: ____.
A. Few needs, many customers
B. Broad needs, few customers
C. Broad needs, many customers
D. All of the above
80: A(n) _____ describes all the elements involved in starting a new venture.
A. Business plan
B. Control system
C. Opportunity analysis
D. Initial public
81: _____ are sets of interacting components working within an environment to fulfill some purpose.
A. Systems philosophy
B. Functional philosophy
C. Symbolic philosophy
D. Philosophy
82: Service organizations ________.
A. Produce physical outputs only
B. Produce physical and nonphysical outputs
C. Produce nonphysical outputs only
D. Require nonphysical inputs only
83: _____ is used to examine the specific tasks assigned to each position within a company.
A. Job analysis
B. Job determination
C. Job evaluation
D. Job identification
84: ______ behavior is behavior that conforms to generally accepted social norms.
A. Ethical behavior
B. Maladaptive behavior
C. Passive behavior
D. Deficit behavior
85: ______ can help workers focus on critical problems, choices, and opportunities.
A. An effective synergy policy
B. MBO
C. Diversity planning
D. A strong value system
E. Planning and strategic management
86: ______ is the conflict-handling style in which both parties give up something to gain something.
A. Avoiding
B. Forcing
C. Accommodating
D. Compromising
87: ______ is the expectation that successful performance of the task will lead to the desired outcome.
A. Reinforcement
B. Effort
C. Expectancy
D. Instrumentality
88: A _____ structure is a flat organization with one person as the central decision-making figure.
A. Functional
B. Product
C. Client-based
D. Simple
E. Matrix
89: A ______ is a specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a stated period of time.
A. Goal
B. Vision
C. Business plan
D. Supervisory objective
E. Norm
90: A change that is made in response to arising problems or opportunities is called __________.
A. Reactive change.
B. Incremental change.
C. Proactive change.
D. Radical change.
E. Process change
91: All of these are a part of an organization's task environment except _____.
A. Customers
B. Labor markets
C. Competitors
D. Employers
E. Suppliers
92: Charismatic leaders generally ____
A. Articulate a vision based on strongly held values
B. Negative behaviors, such as breaking rules
C. Stronger organizational commitment
D. Increased job satisfaction
93: Ethnocentric managers believe that their native country, culture, language, and behavior _____.
A. and therefore, the home office should leave them alone as much as possible; "They Know Best"
B. that they should use whatever techniques are most effective; "What's Best is What's Effective, Regardless of Origin"
C. are superior to all others; "We Know Best"
94: Job satisfaction has a _____ correlation with task performance.
A. Relatively weak
B. Relatively strong
C. Moderate positive
D. Weak negative
E. Strong positive
95: Narrow spans of control build _____ organizations.
A. Tall
B. Procurement
C. Cost
D. Human resource
96: Taylor began to develop his theory of ________ as a result of viewing workers in steel companies.
A. Scientific management
B. Social categorization
C. Social identity
D. Information processing
97: Team building exercises and motivation techniques are tools used in _____ management.
A. Procurement
B. Cost
C. Human resource
D. Scope
98: Team norms in an organization can create ____.
A. Negative behaviors, such as breaking rules
B. More trust in management
C. Stronger organizational commitment
D. Increased job satisfaction
E. All of these
99: The positive potential of diversity is typically reflected in theories about _____.
A. Social categorization
B. Social identity
C. Information processing
D. Cognitive dissonance
100: _____ appraisals assess what workers are like, while _____ appraisals assess what workers do.
A. Trait; behavior
B. Trait; Trait
C. Behavior;Trait
D. Behavior; behaviour
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