The Criminal Justice Process MCQs
The Criminal Justice Process MCQs
Our team has conducted extensive research to compile a set of The Criminal Justice Process MCQs. We encourage you to test your The Criminal Justice Process knowledge by answering these 70+ multiple-choice questions provided below.
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1: What is a group of citizens assembled to decide whether an indictment should be issued called?
A. Petit jury
B. Preliminary jury
C. Grand jury
D. Pretrial jury
2: If an aggrieved individual wants to formally pursue an action against another party, what is his or her recourse?
A. Assemble a petit jury
B. File a complaint himself or herself
C. Inform police so they can file a complaint
D. Inform the prosecutor so he or she may file a complaint
E. B, C, or D
3: A recently arrested individual is present for the initial appearance where he is informed of his rights. Which of the following is not a right of a defendant?
A. The right to remain silent
B. The right to an attorney
C. The right to a preliminary hearing
D. The right to select the forum
4: In a preliminary hearing, the prosecution’s evidence, if true, would be sufficient to convict a defendant at trial; however, despite the sufficiency of the evidence, it seems unlikely that a conviction would actually occur. A jurisdiction that adheres to this approach would choose to go to trial.
A. Prima facie
B. Critical stage
C. Sufficiency of the evidence
D. Probable cause
5: Grand jury proceedings are surrounded by secrecy because they are not open to the public, and the suspect has no right to attend the hearings, testify, or present evidence.
A. True
B. False
6: Joe, afraid of prosecution for his own involvement in the commission of a crime, does not want to testify in front of a grand jury in a related matter. He negotiates with the prosecutor in hopes of receiving immunity. Which type of immunity will afford Joe the broadest protection from prosecution?
A. Use immunity
B. Directional immunity
C. Indictment immunity
D. Transactional immunity—This type of immunity protects a testifying witness from prosecution for any crime the witness admits while testifying.
7: Samantha attends an arraignment hearing and enters a ple She contends that she may have completed the illegal act she is charged with, but she did not understand that what she was doing was wrong at the time she was acting. Which of the four pleas available best reflects her contentions?
A. Guilty
B. Nolocontendre
C. Not guilty by reason of insanity
D. Not guilty
8: Which type of evidence is typically not discoverable?
A. The defendant’s criminal record
B. Statements made by the defendant
C. Police personnel records
D. Documents and tangible evidence
9: Defendants who plead guilty typically receive less severe sentences than those who choose to go to trial, resulting in the appearance that individuals who go to trial are being punished for doing so.
A. True
B. False
10: An individual pleads guilty to a charge after the prosecutor warns that in the absence of a guilty plea he will return to the grand jury to seek additional charges against the defendant. This plea is defective for what reason?
A. It is not voluntary.
B. It is a result of coercion.
C. It is a result of a threat.
D. All of the above
11: A jury is assembled in a criminal case against a White female Jewish schoolteacher. There are no schoolteachers on the jury nor are there any individuals who identify as Jewish. She wishes to challenge the composition of the jury as not being representative. Is she correct in her contention?
A. Yes. A jury must be composed of the defendant’s peers.
B. No, a jury must only reflect a fair cross section of the community
12: A prosecutor presenting his case-in-chief calls his next witness to the stand for direct examination and after asking some basic background questions asks, “You were with Dylan before and after the robbery, so you were with him during the robbery, were you not?” This statement would be impermissible because it is what type of question?
A. An argumentative question
B. A narrative question
C. A leading question
13: On cross-examination, the lawyer is limited to a line of questioning involving only the subject matter that was brought up on the direct examination.
A. True
B. False
14: A defendant is convicted after a jury trial. The jury that was empaneled was comprised of four members. The defendant wishes to challenge the validity of the verdict on the basis that the number of jurors was insufficient to represent the diversity in his community. Is the defendant correct?
A. No
B. Yes
15: Which of the following is not a primary goal of the Sentencing Reform Act?
A. Deterrence
B. Incapacitation
C. Rehabilitation
D. Retribution
16: A defendant was found guilty during a criminal trial. Following the verdict, he wishes to appeal on the basis that both the prosecutor and judge made comments to the jury that they could infer guilt based upon the defendants refusal to take the stan Under which standard of review is the appeal likely to be granted?
A. Plain exception
B. Harmless error
C. Automatic reversal
17: Despite being denied an appeal, upon discovering new evidence a convicted individual may still have a remedy. Which petition will allow for possible review?
A. Habeas corpus
B. Judicial review
C. Retroactive review
D. Motion in limine
18: Is argumentative question a question that challenges a witness in a rude or hostile manner?
A. True
B. False
19: _____ is the defendant is informed of the charges against him or her and is required to enter a plea.
A. Arraignment
B. Evidence of motive
C. None of these
D. Evidence of guilt
20: _____ is defined as the requirement that a violation of a fundamental constitutional right during trial results in the reversal of a conviction on appeal.
A. No
B. Yes, but only because she refused to consent
C. All of these
D. automatic reversal rule
21: _____ is known as an administrative procedure in which the suspect’s name, arrest time, offense charged, fingerprinting, and photographs are recorded.
A. Truth seeking
B. Lack of flexibility
C. All of these
D. Booking
22: Is brady rule the prosecution is required to turn over exculpatory information to the accused?
A. False
B. True
23: _____ is the presentation of the prosecution’s evidence at trial.
A. The government if there was no warrant
B. case-in-chief
C. All of these
D. There is no burden of proof because the case is automatically thrown out due to police misconduct
24: _____ is defined as a juror may be excluded from the jury based on an actual or presumed inability to impartially evaluate the evidence
A. None of these
B. challenge for cause
C. No, because doctors can always disclose information relating to patients’ injuries
D. Yes, but only because she refused to consent
25: _____ is known as a reduction in a criminal punishment.
A. All of these
B. None of the above
C. Clemency
D. supervisory authority
26: Is closing argument a summary of the evidence by the prosecution and defense?
A. False
B. True
27: _____ is remedies that are available following the exhaustion of direct appeals.
A. Sufficiency of the evidence
B. Prima facie
C. collateral remedies
D. None of these
28: _____ is defined as a legal document that lists the charges, the legal elements of the crime, and the supporting facts against the individual and possible penalties.
A. A declarant
B. Complaint
C. A witness
D. All of these
29: _____ is known as a legal document that lists the charges, the legal elements of the crime, and the supporting facts against the individual and possible penalties.
A. Yes
B. Only if the opposing party requests its admission
C. Complaint
D. All of these
30: Is cross-examination questions regarding the direct testimony of a witness?
A. True
B. False
31: _____ is the questioning of a witness by the party who called the witness to testify.
A. All of these
B. direct examination
C. Offered into evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted
D. A witness
32: _____ is defined as a motion made by a defense attorney at the conclusion of the prosecution’s case-in-chief to dismiss the case based on the prosecution’s failure to prove one or more of the elements of the criminal charge.
A. Actual seizure
B. directed verdict
C. None of these
D. burden of proof
33: _____ is known as the right for each side to have warning of the evidence that the other side will present at trial.
A. Penalizing victims
B. None of these
C. Discovery
D. Victim sympathizing
34: Is double jeopardy prosecuting a defendant in the same jurisdiction on two occasions for the same crime?
A. True
B. False
35: _____ is the judge instructs the jurors who are in the minority to reconsider the reasonableness of their views
A. No, the test to consider is how long it would take the suspects to dispose of the evidence not how long it would take them to reach the door.
B. dynamite charge
C. All of these
D. Yes, it would take any reasonable person at least 60 seconds to come to the door.
36: _____ is defined as the rule that an appeal may be taken only following a verdict.
A. final judgment rule
B. Recorded recollection
C. Present sense impression
D. None of these
37: _____ is known as following an arrest, a suspect’s initial appearance before a judge for the determination of probable cause, to be informed of his or her rights, for decisions to be made on pretrial release and bail, and the appointment of an attorney for the indigent.
A. To act as guarantors
B. Federal Rules of Evidence
C. first appearance
D. All of these
38: Is habeas corpus latin for “you have the body”; a writ of habeas corpus is an order issued by a judge to a government official (usually the warden of a correctional institution) to bring an imprisoned individual to court and explain why the individual is in detention?
A. False
B. True
39: _____ is an error made in admission of evidence that does not contribute to the conviction obtained. An appellate court must be convinced beyond a reasonable doubt that the error is harmless.
A. By testimony from a coconspirator that witnessed the writing of the note
B. By the mother of the defendant who was familiar with the handwriting at issues
C. harmless error
D. None of these
40: _____ is defined as a jury unable to reach a verdict.
A. None of these
B. hung jury
C. Rehabilitation
D. Deterrence
41: _____ is known as an accusation of criminal activity returned by a grand jury.
A. Indictment
B. None of these
C. Yes, unless it’s a jurisdiction that requires that the witness prepared the document.
D. All of the above
42: Is indictment states eighteen indictment states, the District of Columbia, and the federal government provide that following the preliminary hearing a felony charge is to be brought before a grand jury. A prosecutor may “bypass” the preliminary hearing by immediately taking a charge before a grand jury?
A. True
B. False
43: _____ is prosecutors in twenty-eight states may bring a felony charge based on a “sworn information” and then may bring a charge either before a preliminary hearing or before a grand jury.
A. None of these
B. Total incorporation
C. information states
D. None of the above
44: _____ is defined as an appeal taken prior to the final verdict.
A. Pretrial jury
B. interlocutory appeal
C. None of these
D. Preliminary jury
45: _____ is known as a prosecutor’s closing statement that responds to a statement by the defense attorney.
A. Corroborative
B. None of these
C. invited response
D. Circumstantial
46: Is jury instructions instructions issued to the jury by the judge?
A. True
B. False
47: _____ is a questioning of individual jurors regarding whether they support the jury verdict.
A. All of these
B. jury poll
C. A demonstration that the process is accurate
D. Testimony that it is an accurate representation of the patient’s condition
48: _____ is defined as a question by a lawyer to a witness that suggests the desired answer.
A. All of these
B. A fine or jail term
C. Refusal introduced as evidence of guil
D. leading question
49: _____ is known as four states require indictments for felonies punishable by capital punishment and life imprisonment.
A. All of these
B. Yes, but only if the man is unavailable to testify himself.
C. No, unless the doctor is also qualified as a domestic violence expert.
D. modified indictment states
50: Is motion in limine “At the outset or at the threshold”; a motion to exclude evidence from trial or to obtain permission to introduce evidence at trial?
A. False
B. True
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