The following CCNA MCQs have been compiled by our experts through research, in order to test your knowledge of the subject of CCNA. We encourage you to answer these 100+ multiple-choice questions to assess your proficiency.
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1: Calculate the number of usable networks and usable hosts for the network

A.   2 networks with 128 hosts

B.   1 network with 254 hosts

C.   4 networks with 64 hosts

D.   6 networks with 30 hosts

2: Which command enables directly connected network to be used by RIP?

A.   Router(Config-router)# network

B.   Router(Config-router)# rip

C.   Router(Config-router)# network

D.   Router(Config)# rip

3: What does the 'passive' command provide to the RIP dynamic routing protocol?

A.   Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates

B.   Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates

C.   Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates

D.   Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates

4: Which of the following is a Cisco Proprietary First-Hop Redundancy Protocol?

A.   STP





5: How are frame relay virtual circuits Identified?

A.   VPI



D.   MAC

E.   CIR

6: Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

A.   You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain

B.   VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches

C.   VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed

D.   VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain

7: What is the default administrative distance for a static route to a next-hop address?

A.   90

B.   5

C.   20

D.   0

E.   1

8: Which layer of OSI does Switches operate ?

A.   Physical Layer

B.   Session Layer

C.   Data Link Layer

D.   Transport Layer

E.   Network Layer

9: What was the key reason the International Organization for Standardization released the OSI model?

A.   The network administrator could increase the overall speed of their network

B.   Different vendors networks could work with each other

C.   The industry could create a standard for how computers work

D.   Users could access network server faster

10: What is the bit length and expression form of a MAC address?

A.   24 bits expression as a decimal number

B.   48 bits expression as a hexadecimal number

C.   24 bits expression as a hexadecimal number

D.   48 bits expression as a decimal number

E.   36 bits expression as a binary number

11: What does the command - routerA(config)#line cons 0 - allow you to perform next?

A.   Shut down the router

B.   Unleash the hounds

C.   Set your console password

D.   Disable console connections

E.   Set the Telnet password

12: Which command sets IGRP as the routing protocol for autonomous system 100?

A.   Router(config)# enable igrp 100

B.   Router(config)# network 100

C.   Router(config)# router igrp 100

D.   Router(config)# igrp 100

13: Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?

A.   line aux

B.   line con

C.   line vty

D.   line telnet

14: Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?

A.   B

B.   C

C.   B and C

D.   A

15: Which of these are NOT included in the lower layer of the OSI model?

A.   Physical

B.   Data Link

C.   Application

D.   Network

16: Which protocol does Ping use?


B.   ARP

C.   BootP

D.   TCP

17: What device hosts a different subnet on each interface

A.   Hub

B.   Router

C.   Switch

18: What is the connection-oriented protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack?

A.   TCP

B.   DNS

C.   UDP


E.   IP

19: What protocol resolves IP addresses to MAC address?

A.   ARP

B.   UDP

C.   NAT

D.   RIP

E.   TCP

20: When designing a switch internetwork, one important consideration is the physical cabling distance. What is the maximum allowable distance of the 100BaseTX standard?

A.   10 m

B.   1000 m

C.   95 m

D.   100 m

E.   50 m

21: What does the Frame Relay switch use to distinguish between each PVC connection?

A.   CNs

B.   Local management interface LMI

C.   FECNs

D.   Data link connection identifier (DLCIs)

22: How long is an IPv6 address?

A.   124

B.   32

C.   64

D.   128

23: What is the distance limitation for 100BaseT?

A.   185 meters

B.   25 meters

C.   1000 feet

D.   100 meters

E.   607 feet

24: Routers that have flash memory typically have preloaded copy of Cisco IOS software. Which command should you use to make backup copy of the software image onto a network server?

A.   Write Backup TFTP

B.   Copy Flash TFTP

C.   Save Copy TFTP

D.   Write Backup (server-name)

E.   Copy backup 2 (server-name)

25: How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

A.   2

B.   5

C.   12

D.   1

26: Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?

A.   G

B.   A

C.   R

D.   F

27: Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?

A.   show all access-lists

B.   show interface

C.   show access-lists

D.   show ip interface

28: Which information must a router have in order to perform proper and efficient routing?

A.   Destination application of an incoming packet

B.   Number of routers that know a path to the destination

C.   Destination network address of an incoming packet

D.   Number of other packets in a single flow of data

29: DCLI is to frame relay as MAC is to:

A.   PVC

B.   None of these

C.   LCI

D.   Ethernet

30: Which network protocol does DNS use?


B.   SCP

C.   UDP

D.   FTP

E.   (all of these)

31: What is the extension of cisco IOS file?

A.   .csco

B.   .scr

C.   .exe

D.   .bin

E.   .tar

32: In practical IPv6 application, The encapsulation of IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets is called what?

A.   tunneling

B.   hashing

C.   routing

D.   NAT

33: An Ethernet term used to describe a network collection of devices in which one particular device sends a packet on a network segment and forces all other devices on that same segment to pay attention to it is called a:

A.   Hop count

B.   Window

C.   Three-way handshake

D.   Collision domain

34: How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?

A.   Every 2 minutes

B.   Always

C.   Every 2 seconds

D.   Every 10 minutes



C.   IS-IS

D.   RIP


36: While performing the password recovery procedure on your 2500 series Cisco router, you type in the following command. o/r0x2142 What is the purpose of this command?

A.   It is used to view the lost password

B.   It is used to bypass the configuration in NVRAM

C.   It is used to save the changes to the configuration

D.   It is used to enter ROM Monitor mode

E.   It is used to restart the router

37: A routing table contains static, RIP, and IGRP routes for the same destination network. Which route would normally be used to forward data?

A.   All three will load balance

B.   The IGRP route

C.   The RIP route

D.   The static route

38: Which is a valid ipv6 loopback Addresse?

A.   ::1

B.   2000::/3

C.   FE00:/12

D.   FF00::/10

39: Which statement about switched and routed data flow is correct?

A.   Switches create a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. Routers provide separate broadcast domains

B.   Switches create a single collision domain and a separate broadcast domain. Router provides a separate broadcast domain as well

C.   Switches create separate collision domains but a single broadcast domain. Routers provide a separate broadcast domains

D.   Switches create separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. Routers provide separate collision domains

40: Which of the following PPP authentication protocols verify the identity of the peer by means of three-way handshake?

A.   MD5




E.   PAP

41: What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

A.   Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.

B.   Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

C.   Only the enable password will be encrypted.

D.   It will encrypt all current and future passwords.


B.   STP



E.   VTP

43: Frame relay is following type of network

A.   Fast Switched

B.   Internet Switched

C.   Private Switched

D.   Packet Switched

E.   Circuit Switched

44: If user response drops as a network continues to grow, what should you do?

A.   Segment the network

B.   Create a new broadcast domain

C.   Block the most inactive IP addresses

D.   Upgrade to a newer switch

45: What is the administrative distance of OSPF?

A.   100

B.   120

C.   170

D.   90

E.   110

46: What does a VLAN do?

A.   Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork

B.   Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

C.   Acts as the fastest port to all servers

D.   Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port

47: How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

A.   12

B.   3

C.   4

D.   1

48: Which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process?

A.   Connected network numbers

B.   An IP address mask

C.   A registered administrative id

D.   Metric weights

E.   An autonomous system number

49: What command can you type to view the connections after telneting into multiple routers simultaneously?

A.   sh host

B.   sh sessions

C.   sh ports

D.   sh users

E.   sh connections

A.   ip encapsulation ppp

B.   encapsulation ppp-synch

C.   encapsulation ip ppp

D.   encapsulation ppp