CCNA MCQs
CCNA MCQs
The following CCNA MCQs have been compiled by our experts through research, in order to test your knowledge of the subject of CCNA. We encourage you to answer these 100+ multiple-choice questions to assess your proficiency.
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1: Calculate the number of usable networks and usable hosts for the network 210.106.14.0/24.
A. 2 networks with 128 hosts
B. 1 network with 254 hosts
C. 4 networks with 64 hosts
D. 6 networks with 30 hosts
2: Which command enables directly connected network 199.55.72.0 to be used by RIP?
A. Router(Config-router)# network 199.55.72.0
B. Router(Config-router)# rip 199.55.72.0
C. Router(Config-router)# network 199.55.0.0
D. Router(Config)# rip 199.55.0.0
3: What does the 'passive' command provide to the RIP dynamic routing protocol?
A. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates
B. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates
C. Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates
D. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates
4: Which of the following is a Cisco Proprietary First-Hop Redundancy Protocol?
A. STP
B. HDLC
C. RSTP
D. HSRP
E. VRRP
5: How are frame relay virtual circuits Identified?
A. VPI
B. SPID
C. DLCI
D. MAC
E. CIR
6: Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?
A. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain
B. VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches
C. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed
D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain
7: What is the default administrative distance for a static route to a next-hop address?
A. 90
B. 5
C. 20
D. 0
E. 1
8: Which layer of OSI does Switches operate ?
A. Physical Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Data Link Layer
D. Transport Layer
E. Network Layer
9: What was the key reason the International Organization for Standardization released the OSI model?
A. The network administrator could increase the overall speed of their network
B. Different vendors networks could work with each other
C. The industry could create a standard for how computers work
D. Users could access network server faster
10: What is the bit length and expression form of a MAC address?
A. 24 bits expression as a decimal number
B. 48 bits expression as a hexadecimal number
C. 24 bits expression as a hexadecimal number
D. 48 bits expression as a decimal number
E. 36 bits expression as a binary number
11: What does the command - routerA(config)#line cons 0 - allow you to perform next?
A. Shut down the router
B. Unleash the hounds
C. Set your console password
D. Disable console connections
E. Set the Telnet password
12: Which command sets IGRP as the routing protocol for autonomous system 100?
A. Router(config)# enable igrp 100
B. Router(config)# network 100
C. Router(config)# router igrp 100
D. Router(config)# igrp 100
13: Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?
A. line aux
B. line con
C. line vty
D. line telnet
14: Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A. B
B. C
C. B and C
D. A
15: Which of these are NOT included in the lower layer of the OSI model?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Network
16: Which protocol does Ping use?
A. ICMP
B. ARP
C. BootP
D. TCP
17: What device hosts a different subnet on each interface
A. Hub
B. Router
C. Switch
18: What is the connection-oriented protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack?
A. TCP
B. DNS
C. UDP
D. OSPF
E. IP
19: What protocol resolves IP addresses to MAC address?
A. ARP
B. UDP
C. NAT
D. RIP
E. TCP
20: When designing a switch internetwork, one important consideration is the physical cabling distance. What is the maximum allowable distance of the 100BaseTX standard?
A. 10 m
B. 1000 m
C. 95 m
D. 100 m
E. 50 m
21: What does the Frame Relay switch use to distinguish between each PVC connection?
A. CNs
B. Local management interface LMI
C. FECNs
D. Data link connection identifier (DLCIs)
22: How long is an IPv6 address?
A. 124
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
23: What is the distance limitation for 100BaseT?
A. 185 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 1000 feet
D. 100 meters
E. 607 feet
24: Routers that have flash memory typically have preloaded copy of Cisco IOS software. Which command should you use to make backup copy of the software image onto a network server?
A. Write Backup TFTP
B. Copy Flash TFTP
C. Save Copy TFTP
D. Write Backup (server-name)
E. Copy backup 2 (server-name)
25: How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 12
D. 1
26: Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?
A. G
B. A
C. R
D. F
27: Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. show all access-lists
B. show interface
C. show access-lists
D. show ip interface
28: Which information must a router have in order to perform proper and efficient routing?
A. Destination application of an incoming packet
B. Number of routers that know a path to the destination
C. Destination network address of an incoming packet
D. Number of other packets in a single flow of data
29: DCLI is to frame relay as MAC is to:
A. PVC
B. None of these
C. LCI
D. Ethernet
30: Which network protocol does DNS use?
A. TFTP
B. SCP
C. UDP
D. FTP
E. (all of these)
31: What is the extension of cisco IOS file?
A. .csco
B. .scr
C. .exe
D. .bin
E. .tar
32: In practical IPv6 application, The encapsulation of IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets is called what?
A. tunneling
B. hashing
C. routing
D. NAT
33: An Ethernet term used to describe a network collection of devices in which one particular device sends a packet on a network segment and forces all other devices on that same segment to pay attention to it is called a:
A. Hop count
B. Window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Collision domain
34: How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?
A. Every 2 minutes
B. Always
C. Every 2 seconds
D. Every 10 minutes
35: Routing protocols can be generally classified into distance-vector or link-state. Each method has its own advantages and disadvantages. Which of the following routing protocol takes the benefits of both methods?
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RIP
E. EIGRP
36: While performing the password recovery procedure on your 2500 series Cisco router, you type in the following command. o/r0x2142 What is the purpose of this command?
A. It is used to view the lost password
B. It is used to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
C. It is used to save the changes to the configuration
D. It is used to enter ROM Monitor mode
E. It is used to restart the router
37: A routing table contains static, RIP, and IGRP routes for the same destination network. Which route would normally be used to forward data?
A. All three will load balance
B. The IGRP route
C. The RIP route
D. The static route
38: Which is a valid ipv6 loopback Addresse?
A. ::1
B. 2000::/3
C. FE00:/12
D. FF00::/10
39: Which statement about switched and routed data flow is correct?
A. Switches create a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. Routers provide separate broadcast domains
B. Switches create a single collision domain and a separate broadcast domain. Router provides a separate broadcast domain as well
C. Switches create separate collision domains but a single broadcast domain. Routers provide a separate broadcast domains
D. Switches create separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. Routers provide separate collision domains
40: Which of the following PPP authentication protocols verify the identity of the peer by means of three-way handshake?
A. MD5
B. HDLC
C. CHAP
D. HMAC
E. PAP
41: What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
B. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
C. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
D. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
42: Which enhanced switching protocol is used if faster convergence speed is needed after a link failure?
A. PVST
B. STP
C. DHCP
D. RSTP
E. VTP
43: Frame relay is following type of network
A. Fast Switched
B. Internet Switched
C. Private Switched
D. Packet Switched
E. Circuit Switched
44: If user response drops as a network continues to grow, what should you do?
A. Segment the network
B. Create a new broadcast domain
C. Block the most inactive IP addresses
D. Upgrade to a newer switch
45: What is the administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 170
D. 90
E. 110
46: What does a VLAN do?
A. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork
B. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain
C. Acts as the fastest port to all servers
D. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port
47: How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 12
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
48: Which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process?
A. Connected network numbers
B. An IP address mask
C. A registered administrative id
D. Metric weights
E. An autonomous system number
49: What command can you type to view the connections after telneting into multiple routers simultaneously?
A. sh host
B. sh sessions
C. sh ports
D. sh users
E. sh connections
50: Which IOS command is used to configure encapsulation for a PPP serial link on a Cisco Router?
A. ip encapsulation ppp
B. encapsulation ppp-synch
C. encapsulation ip ppp
D. encapsulation ppp
51: What layer in the OSI model is responsible for data segmentation?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
52: Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
A. D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
B. C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
C. A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
D. B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
53: What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet?
A. Still
B. PAT
C. NAT
D. Static
54: What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?
A. sh pvc
B. show frame-relay pvc
C. show interface
D. sho runn
55: what is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports layer3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimize.
56: Which of the following key factors are categorized as metrics?
A. All of these
B. Ticks
C. Bandwidth
D. Hops
57: Which router command allows you to determine whether an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. show access interface
B. show ip list
C. show ip interface
D. show access list
58: what factor determines the OSPF router ID.
A. The highest IP address of any Physical Interface
B. The highest IP address of any Loop Back Interface
C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface
D. The lowest IP address of any physical interface.
59: If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A. delete nvram
B. erase nvram
C. erase running
D. erase startup
60: How does a bridge function?
A. It looks up the frames destination in its address table and sends the frame towards the destination
B. It maintains a table of the IP address of the host connected to its internet segment
C. It passes packets outside of its network segment if its IP address cannot be found on its table
D. It maintains the table of the data link layer and network layer addresses for the host connected to its network segment
61: During encapsulation in which order is information packaged?
A. Data, Segment, Packet, Frame
B. Packet, Data, Segment, Frame
C. Data, Packet, Segment, Frame
D. Segment, Data, Packet, Frame
62: Which of the following is a process of putting a packet for a destination network not having an entry in the routing table, on to the next hop router?
A. Dynamic Routing
B. Static Routing
C. Default routing
D. Double Routing
63: Which layer in the OSI model provides error checking?
A. Data-Link
B. Transport
C. Physical
D. Session
E. Presentation
64: A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20684570. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 852. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the RIPv2 route
B. the OSPF route
C. the EIGRP route
D. all three routes
E. OSPF and RIPv2 routes
65: What is the role of a destination port number?
A. To assign priorities to services.
B. To address the network devices.
C. To track different conversations and distinct services.
D. To allow or forbid network access.
66: You want to verify the configuration register entry of a Cisco 2500 series router. What command would you use on the router?
A. show flash
B. show version
C. show register
D. show running-config
E. show config-reg
67: Which network mask should you place on a class C address to accommodate a user requirement for five networks with a maximum of 17 hosts on each network?
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.224
D. 255.255.255.192
68: Which router component stores routing tables, ARP cache, and packet buffers?
A. RAM
B. Flash memory
C. ROM
D. NVRAM
69: Link Access Procedure, Balanced (LAPB), is the protocol designed to ensure that the frames are error-free and properly sequenced in what type of network?
A. None of these
B. ARPANET
C. Internet
D. X.25
70: Which command displays the interfaces using a given access list?
A. Show IP interface
B. Show access-list interfaces
C. Show interface parameters
D. Configure IP access list
E. Show active list
71: Your Ethernet network, 172.30.1.0, shuts down. Which update message is seen in your router's debug IP rip output regarding that network?
A. subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 15
B. subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 0
C. subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 1
D. subnet 172.30.1.0, metric 16
72: The RSTP provides which new port role?
A. Discarding
B. Disabled
C. Forwarding
D. Enabled
73: What is an advantage of local area network LAN segmentation?
A. Decrease cost of implementation
B. Elimination of broadcast
C. Larger number of users within the same domain
D. Smaller collision domains
74: Which routing protocol can support unequal-cost load balancing?
A. OSPF and EIGRP
B. EIGRP
C. RIP and EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. RIP
75: What is the difference between a bridge and a switch?
A. A bridge is software based and a switch is CISC based
B. A bridge is software based and a switch is ASIC based
C. A bridge is ASIC based and a switch is software based
D. A bridge is RISC based and a switch is ASIC based
76: In the IPv6 address structure, how many bits are included in each field?
A. 128
B. 16
C. 64
D. 24
E. 4
77: You work as a network technician for smarterer and are responsible for this network. You have chosen WPA over WEP in the wireless network. What is one reason why WPA is preferred over WEP?
A. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values
B. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
C. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used
D. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key
78: A switch has been configured with two vlans and is connected to a router with a trunk for inter-vlan routing. OSPF has been configured on the router,as the routing protocol for the network. Which statement about this network is true?
A. For the two vlans to communicate,a network statement for each subinterface needs to be added to the OSPF configuration.
B. OSPF cannot be used if router-on-a-stick is configured on the router.
C. Direct inter-vlan communication does not require OSPF.
D. For the two vlans to communicate,a network statement for the trunk interface needs to be added to the OSPF configuration.
79: What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
A. B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
B. C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address
C. A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address
D. To map a known DLCI to an IP address
E. E. to map a known IP address to a SPID
80: What does the term ‘Base’ refer to in 100BaseT?
A. Speed category
B. Signaling type
C. 100 mode type
D. Spectrum used
E. Cabling type
81: Which command will let you go back from Privileged Mode to User Mode?
A. end
B. exit
C. disable
D. ctrl+z
82: When you issue the command "Show Version," your router returns: “Configuration register is 0x0101” From where does the router boot?
A. A TFTP server
B. NVRAM
C. FLASH
D. ROM
83: What is the maximum number of subnets that can be assigned to networks when using the address 172.16.0.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0? (Assume older version UNIX workstations are in use.)
A. 16
B. 14
C. 32
D. 30
E. It is an invalid subnet mask for the Network
84: What is the primary advantage of both bridging and switching?
A. Lower layer protocol transparency
B. Bridging and switching have different advantages
C. Upper layer protocol transparency
D. Encryption
85: Three access points have been installed and configured to cover a small office. What term defines the wireless topology?
A. BSS
B. IBSS
C. ESS
D. SSID
86: Port no. for FTP control
A. 22
B. 20
C. 21
D. 19
87: rip version 2 is a
A. link state routing protocol
B. classfull routing protocol
C. classless routing protocol
D. hybrid routing protocol
88: Which of the following can be the IP address of your home PC/laptop that is connected to the internet?
A. 20.0.40.11
B. 172.45.255.60
C. 172.19.10.6
D. 192.169.1.5
E. 221.100.106.78
89: Which of the following is the correct number of usable networks and usable hosts for the network 210.106.14.0/24?
A. 2 networks with 128 hosts
B. 1 network with 254 hosts
C. 6 networks with 30 hosts
D. 4 networks with 64 hosts
90: Which action should one take if user response drops as a network continues to grow?
A. Upgrade to a newer switch
B. Block the most inactive IP addresses
C. Create a new broadcast domain
D. Segment the network
91: Which device hosts a different subnet on each interface?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Hub
92: Which protocol resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. NAT
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP
E. RIP
93: Routers with flash memory typically have a preloaded copy of Cisco IOS software. Which command should you use to make a backup copy of the software image onto a network server?
A. Copy Backup 2 (server-name)
B. Copy Flash TFTP
C. Write Backup (server-name)
D. Write Backup TFTP
E. Save Copy TFTP
94: What is the encapsulation of IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets called in practical IPv6 application?
A. Routing
B. Tunneling
C. Hashing
D. NAT
95: Which statement is true of VLANs?
A. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
B. VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
C. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork; no off-brand switches are allowed.
D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.
96: Which action does the command "routerA(config)#line cons 0" allow you to perform next?
A. Disable console connections
B. Unleash the hounds
C. Set Telnet password
D. Shut down the router
E. Set console password
97: Which is the port no. for FTP control?
A. 19
B. 21
C. 20
D. 22
98: Which of the following are NOT included in the lower layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Application
99: Which of the following is the connection-oriented protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack?
A. DNS
B. OSPF
C. IP
D. UDP
E. TCP
100: Which of the following is the default administrative distance for a static route to a next-hop address?
A. 0
B. 90
C. 5
D. 20
E. 1
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