Consulting With Criminal Courts MCQs

Consulting With Criminal Courts MCQs

These Consulting With Criminal Courts multiple-choice questions and their answers will help you strengthen your grip on the subject of Consulting With Criminal Courts. You can prepare for an upcoming exam or job interview with these 40 Consulting With Criminal Courts MCQs.
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1: What is the most common type of forensic mental health assessment?

A.   Not guilty by reason of insanity evaluations

B.   Psychosexual assessments

C.   Juvenile adjudication assessments

D.   Competency to stand trial evaluations

2: The psychological research literature is increasingly replacing the term competency to stand trial with ______.

A.   Forensic evaluation

B.   Adjudicative competence

C.   Risk assessment

D.   Sanity determination

3: According to the Dusky standard, a defendant must not only understand what is happening but also be ______.

A.   Guilty of the crime

B.   Able to convince others of his or her own innocence

C.   Open to rehabilitation

D.   Able to assist in his or her own defense

4: Theodore Kaczynski rejected his attorney’s advice to ______.

A.   Plead not guilty by reason of insanity

B.   Participate in his own defense

C.   Represent himself at sentencing

D.   Confess to his crimes

5: Which competency assessment instrument taps a defendant’s knowledge about the role of his or her attorney?

A.   The MMPI-2

B.   The Georgia Court Competency Test

C.   The Competency Screening Test

D.   The MacArthur Competency Assessment Tool–Criminal Adjudication

6: There is no uniform standard for determining insanity.

A.   True

B.   False

7: Many individuals found NGRI are hospitalized for longer than the time they would have served had they been convicted.

A.   True

B.   False

8: Which question is central to the determination of insanity?

A.   Did the defendant possess a guilty mind at the time the crime was committed?

B.   Is the defendant guilty of the crime and will she/he repent for the crime?

C.   Is the defendant aware that a trial is occurring?

D.   Can the defendant be rehabilitated?

9: Reducing a sentence to avoid the death penalty is known as ______.

A.   Risk assessment

B.   Extenuating circumstances

C.   Per se exclusion

D.   Death penalty mitigation

10: The APA recommends that psychologists performing risk assessments should only use ______ instruments.

A.   Clinical

B.   Psychosexual

C.   Typological

D.   Validated

11: The label “fixated child molester” is an example of a sex offender ______.

A.   Assessment tool

B.   Typology

C.   Clinical diagnosis

D.   Treatment

12: All of the following statements are accurate about sexually violent predator statutes except ______.

A.   Some states allow violent sex offender to be committed to mental institutions against their will after completing prison sentences

B.   Sexually violent predators often receive intensive treatment while committed

C.   Violent sex offenders may be institutionalized beyond their prison sentence if they are mentally ill

D.   Sexually violent predators may be civilly committed without a diagnosis of mental disorder

13: What is the most common method of restoring competence to a defendant who is found incompetent?

A.   Psychotherapy

B.   Involuntary institutionalization

C.   Medication

D.   Mens rea

14: Today, sentencing in the United States is indeterminate and based on a rehabilitative model of corrections.

A.   True

B.   False

15: In many jurisdictions, intellectual disability is considered a(n) ______ circumstance.

A.   Insanity

B.   Mitigating

C.   Competency

D.   Aggravating

A.   All of these

B.   criminal investigative analysis

C.   adjudicative competence

D.   Be unmarried

17: Is aggravating factors circumstances surrounding a crime that heighten its seriousness for purposes of sentencing. An example would be an excessively heinous or cruel method of carrying out a crime, such as a torture murder?

A.   True

B.   False

18: _____ is the burden of proof that must be met by the government in all criminal cases.

A.   limited jurisdiction

B.   beyond a reasonable doubt

C.   Critical incidents

D.   All of these

A.   Moffitt theory

B.   None of these

C.   Developmental perspective

D.   clear and convincing evidence

20: _____ is known as the treatment given to someone found incompetent to stand trial for the specific purpose of rendering the person competent to be tried.

A.   Composite sketch

B.   Show-up

C.   All of these

D.   competency restoration

21: Is competency Screening Test (CST) sentence-completion examination intended to provide a quick assessment of a defendant’s competency to stand trial. The test taps the defendant’s knowledge about the role of the lawyer and the rudiments of the court process?

A.   False

B.   True

A.   competency to stand trial

B.   None of these

C.   Law enforcement procedures

D.   High poverty rates

23: _____ is defined as judicial or administrative release from an institutional setting (jail, prison, psychiatric hospital) on the condition that one demonstrates good behavior in the community or participates in mental health treatment.

A.   conditional release

B.   Homebuilders program

C.   None of these

D.   Teaching-family model

24: _____ is known as assessment designed to determine whether a defense of insanity can be supported. Also called “mental state at time of offense” evaluation or “insanity” evaluation.

A.   Extent of intimate partner violence

B.   Likelihood of recidivism of domestic violence

C.   All of these

D.   Criminal responsibility evaluations

25: Is death penalty mitigation in capital cases, attempts by the defense team to reduce or avoid the sentence of death for their client based on factors that lessen the offender’s culpability. Examples of mitigating factors are the offender’s age and a history of child abuse?

A.   False

B.   True

A.   True

B.   False

27: _____ is relates to juvenile and adult competency to stand trial and decision-making abilities. The rule holds that defendants must be able to understand and appreciate the criminal proceedings against them and be able to assist their attorneys in their defense.

A.   Psychosocial assessment

B.   Joint evaluation

C.   All of these

D.   dusky standard

28: _____ is defined as con­ducted by psychologists and psychiatrists consulting with criminal courts. Competency to stand trial assessments and criminal responsi­bility evaluations are prominent examples.

A.   All of these

B.   Forensic mental health assessments (FMHAs)

C.   The MMPI-2

D.   The Competency Screening Test

29: _____ is known as a verdict alternative in some states that allows defendants to be found guilty while seemingly affording them treatment for mental disorders.

A.   Guilty but mentally ill (GBMI)

B.   All of these

C.   Sexually violent predators may be civilly committed without a diagnosis of mental disorder

D.   Some states allow violent sex offender to be committed to mental institutions against their will after completing prison sentences

A.   True

B.   False

31: _____ is the federal law passed in 1984 that changed the standard for determining insanity in federal courts and made it more difficult for defendants to use this defense.

A.   Medical diagnoses

B.   None of these

C.   Mental disorders

D.   Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA)

32: _____ is defined as one of the available measures for assessing competency (fitness) to stand trial.

A.   Predictive

B.   Interdisciplinary Fitness Interview–Revised (IFI-R)

C.   Geographical

D.   All of these

33: _____ is known as used by clinicians to evaluate competence to stand trial.

A.   MacArthur Competency Assessment Tool–Criminal Adjudication (MacCAT-CA)

B.   Dual relationships between psychologist and client

C.   None of these

D.   The authority to treat individuals and groups

34: Is malingering response style in which the individual consciously fabricates or grossly exaggerates his or her symptoms?

A.   False

B.   True

35: _____ is in criminal law, the guilty mind. It refers to the intent that is needed in order to be found guilty of a crime.

A.   Evaluation

B.   None of these

C.   Application

D.   mens rea

36: _____ is defined as one of several tools used by clinicians to assess criminal responsibility, typically to determine whether an insanity defense could be supported.

A.   None of these

B.   Female inmates

C.   College students

D.   Mental State at the Time of the Offense Screen­ing Evaluation (MSE)

A.   preponderance of the evidence

B.   Rapists; Groth

C.   None of these

D.   Child molesters; MTC

38: Is rogers Criminal Responsibility Assessment Scales (R-CRAS) measures designed to assess criminal responsibility and detect malingering in cases where the defendant is considering rais­ing or has raised an insanity defense?

A.   False

B.   True

39: _____ is term used for the sex offender who is believed to be a continuing danger to society. Under SVP statutes, such offenders are civilly committed after the end of their prison sentences.

A.   All of these

B.   Sexually violent predator (SVP)

C.   Psychosocial assessment

D.   Joint evaluation

40: _______________ formed a large part of freud's psychoanalytic method.

A.   Reflection

B.   Empathy

C.   Dream interpretation

D.   Unconditional positive regard ...