Project Management MCQs
Project Management MCQs
The following Project Management MCQs have been compiled by our experts through research, in order to test your knowledge of the subject of Project Management. We encourage you to answer these multiple-choice questions to assess your proficiency.
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1: Code testing is the job of:
A. PMO
B. Only coder
C. Only tester
D. Project manager
E. Both coder and tester
2: Project Plan primarily consists of:
A. Project tasks, priority, allocated to, and target date
B. Project start time, project start date, project finish date, project finish time
C. Project stakeholder names, project name, customer name
D. Project team member details, date of birth, address
E. Project name, project closure date, project sponsors
3: Failed deadlines may result in which of the following?
A. Schedule Extension
B. Decreased Budget
C. Increased Budget
D. All of these
4: If customer requirements are not met:
A. All payment can be claimed from customer
B. A project can't be treated as successful
C. A project can be closed successfully if PMO agrees
D. A project can be treated as successful
5: What would be included as part of the "Triple constraint."
A. Requests or orders given by one's chain of command (Managers/supervisors)
B. Scope, Schedule, or Budget
C. Government regulations
D. The project charter
E. Corporate or industry norms, guidelines, or standard practices
6: The stakeholders of a project are the:
A. PMO
B. All of these
C. Customer management
D. End users
E. Project managers
7: Project Manager is responsible for:
A. All of these
B. Project closure
C. Project execution
D. Project Initiation
8: Project Closure comprises of :
A. Release of project resources
B. Customer acceptance
C. All of these
D. A formal closure note
9: What is the project manager responsible to do?
A. Deliver at agreed budget.
B. Foster team communication.
C. Ensure timely delivery.
D. All of these
10: Prime role of a Project Manager is:
A. Risk mitigation
B. Crisis management
C. All of these
D. Project closure
E. Team management
11: What are the key attributes of a kickoff meeting?
A. All of these
B. Project charter is complete
C. Team participation
D. Client participation
12: What would a project manager need to understand in order to properly sequence activities in a WBS?
A. Outputs
B. Durations
C. Inputs
D. All of the above
13: More rework in a project means:
A. Poor project management
B. Poor team management
C. Poor governance
D. All of these
E. Poor development
14: Which of these is not a stage of Project management?
A. Planning
B. Closure
C. Execution
D. Cleansing
15: Tester's job is to:
A. All of these
B. Explain implication of bug
C. Find out the bug in code
D. State severity of bug
E. Documentation of Bugs Report
16: The point of planning is to ______.
A. Come up with one idea
B. Understand whats needs to be done
C. Stick to the script
D. Finish quickly
17: Quality Control can be monitored by creating these?
A. All of the Above
B. Statistical Analysis
C. Feedback Systems
D. Trouble Shooting Techniques
18: Initiation is used to identify which of the following?
A. Strategy
B. All of the Above
C. Scope
D. Purpose
19: Project Lifecycle is:
A. A logical sequence of project phases comprising of associated activities
B. Defining project in a cyclic manner
C. Checking how many cycles there are in a project
D. Writing a report on life of a project
20: When is the best time to close a project?
A. All of these
B. When project documentation is filed.
C. When all deliverables are signed off.
D. When contracts are closed.
21: Which groups are included as project stakeholders?
A. Project team
B. All of these
C. Client contacts and management
D. Team supervisors
22: Project Review is a process of:
A. Monitoring project performance and control of risks
B. Monitoring project team behavior
C. Monitoring business
D. Monitoring customer end users
23: _______ is a formal approved document that defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.
A. Performance Plan
B. Project Runner
C. Project Management Plan
D. Change Management Plan
24: Risk Management includes:
A. Risk Assessment and mitigation plan and execution
B. Risk execution and identification
C. Risk Assessment and award
D. Risk evaluation and propogation
25: Project Manager for a project is identified during:
A. Project closure
B. If management of project fails
C. Project Initiation
D. Product deployment
26: True or False? The closing stage consists of more than one type of closure?
A. True
B. False
27: Which of the following is NOT an interpersonal skill a project manager should use in managing stakeholders expectations?
A. Resolving conflict
B. Building trust
C. Active listening
D. Denying change requests
28: The deliverables have been signed off and teams have stopped working on the project. Which project phase are you in?
A. Project planning
B. Project control
C. Project closure
D. Project execution
29: Project Governance is about:
A. Sharing failures of past projects
B. Sharing project team details
C. Sharing success stories of past projects
D. Sharing practices with team and assigning roles in monitoring
30: CPM stands for?
A. Cease Plan Mode
B. Crystallize Plan Mode
C. Critical Path Method
D. Control Problem Maps
31: A team leader's job is to ______ a group's collaborative work.
A. Relegate
B. Reproduce
C. Denigrate
D. Oversee
32: The quantity of time that will elapse from the start of an activity to its end is called what?
A. Work required
B. Duration
C. Effort
D. Time required
33: Which of these is not a stage of Project Development?
A. Execution
B. Interpolation
C. Closure
D. Initiation
34: _______ is the processes involved in estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs so the project can be completed within the approved budget.
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Planning
C. Project Quality Management
D. Performance Management
35: An effective Project manager will cancel a failing project only after this process?
A. Project Assessment
B. Project Initiation
C. Project Referral
D. Project Delays
36: Triple constraint of a project is:
A. Resistance to change, lack of support, team management
B. Scope, schedule, cost
C. No specification, difficult users, political intervention
D. Budget, time, knowledge
37: Who is responsible for conducting formal or informal assessments of the project team's performance?
A. Project management team
B. Customer
C. Project team themselves
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
38: A sponsor has requested a fixed budget and a fixed scope. What is the most effective way to plan?
A. If the project budget is less than the requested budget, count the difference as contingency.
B. Clarify with the sponsor which project attribute is most important to them. Plan the project with that attribute fixed.
C. If the project budget is more than the requested budget, agree to the terms but add change penalty fees into the contract.
D. If the project budget is more than the requested budget, negotiate the cost estimates down.
39: What does SV stand for?
A. Schedule Variance
B. Schedule Vitals
C. Scalable Volue
D. Summary and Vision
40: High Severity Risk in a project:
A. Impacts negatively on progress and success of project
B. Enhances progress of project
C. Improves efficiency of product
D. Reduces failure chances
E. Increase market visibility
41: What is a project manager called when using scrum methodologies?
A. Product Manager
B. Program Manager
C. Scrum Master
D. Project Manager
42: This type of chart displays a project start and finish date?
A. Pie
B. Kant
C. Flow
D. Gannt
43: A stakeholder has been made aware of an overbudgeted, overstaffed, and underperformed project. A Project Manager should respond by_________.
A. Identifying the details and environment surrounding the issues and enacting a post-assessment plan
B. Hiring a new team and requesting budget increases
C. Informing the stakeholder of misinformation and ensuring forward progression.
D. Forming an independent troubleshooting team and increasing the pay of top performers
44: The _________ documents the approach to communicate effectively and efficiently with stakeholders.
A. Communications Management Plan
B. Project Planning
C. Quality Plan
D. Performance Plan
45: When is a WBS used?
A. When contrasting final deliverables to original contract.
B. When documenting a team member change.
C. When cancelling vendor agreements.
D. When identifying activities needed to create deliverables.
46: The team is working on the project and regular communication is happening between the project manager, the team, and the client. Which project phase are you in?
A. Project execution
B. Project initiation
C. Project control
D. Project planning
47: What are the most common parts of a stand-up meeting?
A. Burndown chart review, finished work review, updates from team.
B. Task list review, new task assignments, questions.
C. Reporting the progress on the project since the last meeting, reporting of plans until the next meeting, noting issues that are delaying progress.
D. Team review of product that is almost ready for release, noting of issues, assignment of issue owners.
48: Add this type of clause to a deadline agreement for a project with great scope?
A. Cancellation Clause
B. Autopay Clause
C. Buyout Clause
D. Extension Clause
49: What is involved with fast tracking a schedule?
A. Setting up incentives to motivate the team to work faster.
B. Arranging some project activities to happen concurrently, rather than sequentially.
C. Reassigning activities that can be done faster through outsourcing.
D. Bringing in additional project management to oversee the schedule.
50: _______ is the processes and activities that determine quality policies, objectives, and responsibilities which ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.
A. Project Quality Management
B. Project Planning
C. Performance Management
D. Project Cost Management
51: ________ is acknowledging a risk but taking no action to avoid, transfer, or mitigate it.
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk acceptance
C. Risk analysis
D. Risk prevention
52: Which is NOT included in the 7 keys to success proposed by IBM?
A. Business benefits are being realized
B. Scope is realistic and managed
C. Complex tasks are postponed
D. Work and schedules are predictable
E. Risks are being mitigated
53: Which one of the following is NOT one of the four P's that effective software project management focuses on?
A. Project
B. Perspective
C. Process
D. People
54: _______ consists of all the processes that ensure that the work necessary, and only the work necessary, to successfully complete the project has been defined.
A. Project Scope Management
B. Change Management
C. Performance Management
D. Project Planning
55: The _________ calculates the longest path of planned activities to logical end points or to the end of the project, and the earliest and latest that each activity can start and finish without making the project longer.
A. Critical path method
B. event chain methodology
C. project plan
D. Delphi method
56: The process of administering actionable tasks is called?
A. Quantification
B. Delegation
C. Relaying
D. Representation
57: With a little time to create a team, a Project Manager should value ________.
A. Availability & Skill Set
B. Speed & Adaptability
C. Availability only
D. Skill Set & Speed
58: Which of the following is NOT a feature of an issues log?
A. Issues are categorized based on urgency and impact
B. Issues are clearly stated
C. The project team member that caused the issue is identified
D. An owner is assigned to every issue
59: Which of the following is NOT one of the indicators of a team's effectiveness?
A. Individual team members try to outperform one another.
B. Individual skills improvement so team members can perform assignments more effectively.
C. Improvements in competencies that raise overall team performance.
D. Reduced staff turnover rate.
60: _______ is the expected total cost of the project at completion.
A. Actual Cost (AC)
B. Total cost estimate
C. Estimated Cost at Completion (EAC)
D. Budget at Completion (BAC)
61: The team just discovered an significant unplanned cost. Which of the following is not a way to resolve this?
A. Reallocate funds from another project.
B. Renegotiate other areas of the budget.
C. Proceed with the project and hope that things sort out.
D. Use a contingency budget.
62: Which of the following is NOT a source selection criteria used in contract procurement?
A. technical capability
B. open change requests
C. understanding of need
D. cost
63: Quantitative Project Management is best used for?
A. Determining resource availability
B. Isolating Quality concerns
C. Distributing tasks
D. Predicting Cost and Schedule Overruns
64: You are monitoring the schedule progress and evaluating budget. You see a trend of going over budget and are having conversations to correct the issue. Which project phase are you in?
A. Project initiation
B. Project control
C. Project execution
D. Project planning
65: If you believe the likelihood of a milestone occurring is sufficient, you could list this probability as what?
A. Asymptote
B. Aspect
C. Assumption
D. Assertion
66: ________ constitutes one of the major areas of cost growth.
A. Scope change
B. Risk prevention
C. Bug fixes
D. Project planning
67: Which of these is the first phase of Project management?
A. Control
B. Initiation
C. Closure
D. Planning
68: A client has added tasks to a contracted project without full disclosure. This is called?
A. Scope Creep
B. Scope Drip
C. Screening
D. Blind Screening
69: Customer Requirement is captured during:
A. Project execution phase
B. After the project is completed
C. Project planning phase
D. Project closure phase
E. Project initiation phase
70: Which of the following is not a common communication tool for project managers?
A. Burndown charts
B. Network diagrams
C. Code register
D. WBS
71: ________ is the effect on project objectives if the risk event occurs.
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk prevention
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk consequences
72: ________ a technique used to determine whether particular work can be accomplished by the project team or must be purchased from an outside source.
A. Make-or-buy analysis
B. Time-and-materials contract
C. Procurement analysis
D. Project planning
73: _________ is the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information.
A. Project Cost Management
B. Performance Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
74: _______ is the formal process to review, approve, and manage changes to project deliverables, documents, and the project management plan throughout the project.
A. Performance control
B. Integrated Change Control
C. Performance plan
D. Plan management
75: _______ is giving the customer more than what was required.
A. Performance
B. Quality
C. Earned value
D. Gold-plating
76: ________ is reducing the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event to below an acceptable level.
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk prevention
C. Risk planning
D. Risk analysis
77: Which of the following aspects of a project are known as the project management triangle?
A. Scope, quality, stakeholders
B. Expertise, communication, tools
C. Scope, schedule, cost
D. Time, cost, schedule
78: You notice that several activities have taken longer than expected. What would be the least effective course of action?
A. Evaluate the impact and communicate to the team.
B. Hope that later activities will make up for the loss of time.
C. Add additional resources to future activities.
D. Renegotiate shorter time estimates on future activities.
79: What term refers to a project environment where project contributors do not report organizationally to a project manager?
A. Matrix
B. Projectized
C. Enterprise
D. Hierarchy
80: Which of the following is NOT a commonly used tool or technique to collect requirements?
A. Review Project Plan
B. Prototypes
C. Interviews
D. Questionnaires and surveys
81: You are assembling a team and building understanding of the project needs. Which project phase are you in?
A. Project initiation
B. Project execution
C. Project control
D. Project planning
82: _______ authorizes a project or phase of a project.
A. Performance Plan
B. Change Management Plan
C. Project Charter
D. Project Management Plan
83: Customer Requirement Documentation is done by the:
A. Quality team
B. Project manager
C. Project management team
D. Business analysis team
E. Development team
84: What are the most common attributes in a risk register?
A. Stakeholders effected, communication requirements
B. Contact, history
C. Cost impact, schedule impact
D. Probability, impact
85: Which of the following is NOT a process in Project Procurement Management?
A. Plan procurements
B. Retain procurements
C. Conduct procurements
D. Administer procurements
86: Sometimes there is a waiting period between two sequential tasks. What is this span of empty time called?
A. Overrun
B. Wideband
C. Gap
D. Float
87: What is the purpose of the process to collect requirements?
A. To authorize a project or phase of a project.
B. To design a quality software project.
C. To ensure that the work necessary, and only the work necessary, to successfully complete the project has been defined.
D. To define and document stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives.
88: Which of the following is NOT an example of a cost of quality?
A. Liabilities
B. Gold-plating
C. Scrap
D. Rework
89: What is scope creep?
A. A slower than desired progress in completing the scope of a project.
B. Features and deliverables not agreed to in the original plan.
C. That slimy guy with glasses.
D. When a client repeatedly adds new features during planning.
90: What project document is best used to document initial roles, scope, and expectations?
A. Scope plan
B. Project plan
C. Project charter
D. Preliminary plan
91: Which one of the following is NOT in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A. Safety
B. Self Performance
C. Self Actualization
D. Physiological
92: Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment?
A. Expected value technique
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Peer Review
D. Delphi Technique
93: Which of the following is NOT a cost estimate tool or technique?
A. Cost of quality
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Delphi method
D. Parametric estimating
94: A burndown chart is used for which of the following purposes?
A. To estimate team member energy level.
B. To show the organizational hierarchy of the project.
C. To visualize schedule progress.
D. To estimate remaining cost.
95: What is the main responsibility of the Steering Committe during Project Execution?
A. Sit back and relax, watch the project execute.
B. Investigate the possibilities for enlargement of financial budget for future problems?
C. Making clear and timely decisions
D. Discuss with all stakeholders, that the Projectmanager communicates with, about the status of the Project
96: What is the origin of the traditional project management's nickname "Waterfall?"
A. The common practice of vertically sequencing the deliverables from most complex to least complex.
B. The look of project activities scheduled back to back on a Gantt chart.
C. The way that traditional project management rolls up costs.
D. The focus of traditional project managers to push communication through a hierarchy.
97: A project management team has subcontracted work to a service company. Which of the following tools is the best choice to assure that this company will be able to meet the quality requirements of the project?
A. Quality audit
B. Fixed price contract
C. Deliverable inspection
D. Service level agreement
98: What is a WBS input?
A. Overhead costs related to an activity.
B. Items needed before an activity can be done.
C. The documents needed to run a WBS meeting.
D. Time estimates for an activity.
99: ________ is a provision, usually time or money, to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk.
A. Reserve
B. Planning
C. Hold back funds
D. Risk mitigation
100: ______ is the degree to which a set of characteristics fulfills requirements.
A. Quality
B. Grade
C. Scope
D. Performance
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