Types of Law MCQs

Types of Law MCQs

Welcome to MCQss.com! This page features MCQs (multiple-choice questions) that focus on different types of law. By engaging with these MCQs, you can test your knowledge and explore the diverse branches and fields within the legal profession.

Law encompasses various branches and specialized areas that govern different aspects of society. Our MCQs cover a wide range of legal disciplines, providing insights into the different types of law and their roles in the legal system.

Engaging with our MCQs on different types of law allows you to assess your knowledge and understanding of the diverse branches within the legal profession. These questions cover constitutional law, criminal law, civil law, administrative law, international law, and other specialized areas. By exploring these MCQs, you will deepen your understanding of the various legal disciplines and their roles in the legal system.

Whether you are a law student, legal professional, or simply interested in the different branches of law, these MCQs provide a valuable resource to test and expand your knowledge. Enhance your understanding of the types of law by exploring our MCQs on MCQss.com.

1: The primary purpose of criminal law is to seek restitution for the victim(s) of an offense.

A.   True

B.   False

2: Certain behaviors fall into the category of both criminal and civil offenses.

A.   True

B.   False

3: Robbery is larceny by force.

A.   True

B.   False

4: A law need not necessarily define appropriate punishment if the act being prohibited (or required) is clearly defined.

A.   True

B.   False

5: Nighttime entry is a necessary element of burglary.

A.   True

B.   False

6: Punitive damages are awarded as a punishment and to discourage the conduct of the type the defendant displayed.

A.   True

B.   False

7: Criminal intent must always be present for a crime to occur.

A.   True

B.   False

8: Crimes of attempt are also referred to as inchoate crimes.

A.   True

B.   False

9: Rape shield statutes restrict the introduction into evidence of a victim’s sexual history.

A.   True

B.   False

10: Modern statutes retain the common law distinction of principle actors and accessories.

A.   True

B.   False

11: The burden of production and persuasion rests with the prosecution in all criminal cases.

A.   True

B.   False

12: Which of the following is not a major category of civil law?

A.   Contracts

B.   Property

C.   Family

D.   Liability

13: Which of the following is a mala in se crime?

A.   Speeding

B.   Shoplifting

C.   Minor in possession of alcohol

D.   Jaywalking

14: Self-defense is an example of what kind of defense?

A.   Justification

B.   Excuse

C.   Civil

D.   Common law

15: Which of the following is NOT a classification of crime?

A.   Crimes against property

B.   Crimes against society

C.   Crimes against morality

D.   Crimes against majority

16: _____ is also called “but for” cause. If the injury would not have occurred but for the defendant’s action, then there exists actual cause.

A.   U.S. Supreme Court

B.   Actual cause

C.   State Supreme Court

D.   All of these

17: _____ is defined as a guilty act, refers to the three forms of the criminal act: (1) voluntary bodily movements, (2) an omission in the face of a duty to act, and (3) possession.

A.   The civil law system

B.   Actus reus

C.   All of these

D.   An obstacle course

18: _____ is known as a killing, which occurs after such provocation, as the law deems sufficient—that which could cause even a reasonable person to react violently.

A.   Whether to plead guilty

B.   None of these

C.   Adequate provocation

D.   Whether to testify

19: Is adverse possession doctrine that allows the user of another’s land to gain title to it simply by using it for a period of 7 years without objection by the landowner. The purpose of adverse possession is to encourage people to use their property and to take steps to protect their right to the land?

A.   True

B.   False

20: _____ is those defenses in which the defendant has the burden of production and the burden of persuasion.

A.   All of these

B.   Affirmative defense

C.   Attorney general

D.   Defense attorney

21: _____ is defined as when the defendant asserts he or she is not the person who committed the act charged.

A.   All of these

B.   Total incorporation plus

C.   Alibi

D.   Reverse

A.   Whether to testify

B.   Annulment

C.   Whether to accept a plea agreement

D.   None of these

23: Is assault under the common law, assault was either (a) an attempt or (b) a threat to inflict immediate harm by a person with the present means of carrying out the attempt or threat?

A.   True

B.   False

24: _____ is the temporary transfer of possession of personal property to another for a particular purpose.

A.   Retribution

B.   Incapacitation

C.   Bailment

D.   None of these

25: _____ is defined as under the common law, any intentional, unjustified, offensive physical contact, no matter how slight.

A.   None of these

B.   Reliable

C.   Battery

D.   Credible

26: _____ is known as the burden placed on the party to convince the jury with regard to a particular issue. This requires that the prosecution provide enough evidence to secure a conviction. Also called burden of proof.

A.   Burden of persuasion

B.   None of these

C.   To address a disputed factual matter

D.   To address a disputed civil matter

27: Is burden of production the obligation placed on one side in a trial to produce evidence, to make a prima facie showing on a particular issue. Also called burden of going forward?

A.   False

B.   True

28: _____ is unlawful entry accompanied by the present intent to commit another crime once inside. It may occur at all hours of the day and is not limited to dwellings but also may occur in virtually any structure.

A.   Eighth

B.   Burglary

C.   None of these

D.   Fourth

29: _____ is defined as an exception to the general rules of self-defense, stating that persons attacked in their home need not retreat from a potentially deadly invasion and/or attack.

A.   Castle doctrine

B.   Whether to accept a plea agreement

C.   All of these

D.   Whether to plead guilty

A.   All of these

B.   Plea bargaining

C.   Arrest

D.   Causation

31: Is clemency also known as a pardon. The power to grant a pardon or clemency rests with the chief executive—the president at the federal level and the governor at the state level. Pardons can be issued for all manner of crimes?

A.   False

B.   True

A.   Common-law marriage

B.   To address a disputed factual matter

C.   To address a disputed civil matter

D.   All of these

33: _____ is defined as a doctrine that attempts to apportion the responsibility among each party.

A.   Protecting rights of defendants

B.   Plea bargaining

C.   Comparative negligence

D.   All of these

34: _____ is known as the union of intent and act in the criminal law.

A.   Arrest

B.   Concurrence

C.   Plea bargaining

D.   All of these

A.   True

B.   False

36: _____ is an agreement between two or more people for the purpose of committing a crime.

A.   None of these

B.   State supreme courts

C.   The U.S. Supreme Court

D.   Conspiracy

37: _____ is defined as a doctrine, once preeminent but now falling into disfavor, that holds that if an injured party was in any way partially responsible for the injuries, he or she is barred from recovering from a tortfeasor.

A.   Contributory negligence

B.   Indirect

C.   None of these

D.   Strict scrutiny

38: _____ is known as the body of the crime.

A.   All of these

B.   Random cross section of the community

C.   Corpus delicti

D.   U.S. Supreme Court

39: Is disorderly conduct a catch-all phrase that has been held to include acts as diverse as public drunkenness, vagrancy, playing loud music, and fighting?

A.   True

B.   False

40: _____ is a test for whether the act was caused by the defendant’s mental illness. Also referred to as the product test.

A.   Judge

B.   None of these

C.   Attorney general

D.   Durham rule

41: _____ is defined as a right to use another’s real property for a limited purpose and time.

A.   All of these

B.   Easement

C.   Administrative regulation

D.   Legal sufficiency policy

42: _____ is known as when a defendant admits what he or she did was wrong but argues that under the circumstances, he or she is not responsible.

A.   Bill of rights

B.   All of these

C.   Credible

D.   Excuse defense

43: Is felony murder under the felony murder rule, an individual may be held liable for an unintended killing that occurs during the commission of a dangerous felony, such as robbery or rape. In most states, felony murder is treated as second-degree murder. There is no requirement of intent to either kill or inflict serious injury?

A.   False

B.   True

44: _____ is the result of the act, the injury to another.

A.   All of these

B.   Real evidence

C.   Harm

D.   Direct evidence

45: _____ is defined as a broad, all-inclusive term for any killing of another human being.

A.   Corpus delicti

B.   All of these

C.   Homicide

D.   Random cross section of the community

A.   To address a disputed criminal matter

B.   Insanity

C.   To address a disputed civil matter

D.   None of these

A.   True

B.   False

48: _____ is test to determine whether the defendant was insane when he or she committed a criminal act.

A.   None of these

B.   Centralized

C.   Irresistible impulse test

D.   Common law

49: _____ is defined as when the defendant admits to the offense but states that what he or she did was not criminal.

A.   Justification defense

B.   Collaboration

C.   None of these

D.   Rehabilitation

50: _____ is known as the unlawful taking and carrying away of another’s personal property with the intent to permanently deprive the rightful owner of its possession. Includes taking by stealth, by force, by fraud, and by false pretenses.

A.   Larceny

B.   All of these

C.   Prosecutor

D.   Judge