Biological Foundations and Prenatal Development MCQs
Biological Foundations and Prenatal Development MCQs
Try to answer these 70 Biological Foundations and Prenatal Development MCQs and check your understanding of the Biological Foundations and Prenatal Development subject.
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1: One of 46 rodlike molecules that contain 23 pairs of DNA found in every body cell and collectively contain all of the genes is called chromosomes
A. True
B. False
2: The chemical structure, shaped like a twisted ladder, that contains all of the genes is known as
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Polynucleotides
D. Ribosomes
3: The process of ______in which DNA is replicated and the resulting cell is genetically identical to the original is called mitosis
A. Cell duplication
B. Cell replication
C. Cell division
D. Cell formation
4: The process by which a gamete is formed, containing one-half of the cell’s chromosomes producing creating ova and sperm with 23 single, unpaired chromosomes is known as
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Replication
D. Conjugation
5: A fertilized ovum is called zygote
A. True
B. False
6: Dizygotic twins are also known as a fraternal twin; occurs when two ova are released and each is fertilized by a different sperm; the resulting offspring share 50% of the genetic material.
A. True
B. False
7: Monozygotic twins are al so known as an identical twin; occurs when the zygote splits apart early in development. The resulting offspring share 60% of their genetic material.
A. True
B. False
8: Homozygous refers to a chromosomal pair consisting of two identical _______
A. Alleles
B. Chromosomes
C. Genes
D. Cells
9: Heterozygous refers to a chromosomal pair consisting of two different _______.
A. Alleles
B. Chromosomes
C. Genes
D. Cells
10: A form of genetic inheritance in which the phenotype reflects only the dominant allele of a heterozygous pair is called Dominant–Recessive Inheritance
A. True
B. False
11: A genetic inheritance pattern in which both genes are expressed in the phenotype is called
A. Dominance
B. Codominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Complete dominance
12: Sickle cell trait is a dominant trait, more often affecting African Americans than Caucasians or Asian Americans, that causes red blood cells to become crescent or sickle shaped, resulting in difficulty distributing oxygen throughout the circulatory system.
A. True
B. False
13: Polygenic inheritance occurs when a trait is a function of the interaction of many genes, such as with height, intelligence, and temperament
A. True
B. False
14: Polygenic inheritance occurs when a trait is a function of the interaction of many genes, such as with height, intelligence, and temperament
A. True
B. False
15: The instance when the expression of a gene is determined by whether it is inherited from mother or father is called
A. Genomic imprinting
B. Non genomic imprinting
C. Imprinting
D. Habituation
16: A recessive disorder that prevents the body from producing an enzyme that breaks down phenylalanine (an amino acid) from proteins, that, without treatment, leads to buildup that damages the __________ is called phenylketonuria
A. Central nervous system.
B. Peripheral nervous system.
C. Brain
D. Legs
17: Fragile X syndrome is an example of a dominant–recessive disorder carried on the ______ chromosome
A. X
B. Y
C. XX
D. Xy
18: Down syndrome is also known as trisomy 21; a condition in which a third, extra chromosome appears at the ______ site. Down syndrome is associated with distinctive physical characteristics accompanied by developmental disability.
A. 21st
B. 22nd
C. 23rd
D. None of above
19: A sudden permanent change in the structure of ______ is called mutations
A. Genes
B. Cell
C. Chromosomes
D. All of above
20: An individual’s collection of genes that contain instructions for all physical and psychological characteristics, including hair, eye color, personality, health, and behavior is called
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Genomic sequence
D. All of these
21: The observable physical or behavioral characteristics of a person, eye, hair color, or height is called
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Genomic sequence
D. All of these
22: The field of study that examines how genes and environment combine to influence the diversity of human traits, abilities, and behaviors is called behavioral genetics
A. True
B. False
23: A measure of the extent to which variation of a certain trait can be traced to ______ is called heritability
A. Genes
B. Cell
C. Chromosomes
D. All of above
24: Gene environment interactions refer to the dynamic interplay between our genes and our environment in determining out characteristics, behavior, physical, cognitive, and social development as well as health.
A. True
B. False
25: Range of reaction is the concept that a genetic trait may be expressed in a wide range of phenotypes dependent on environmental opportunities and constraints.
A. True
B. False
26: The tendency for a trait that is biologically programmed to be restricted to only a few outcomes is called canalization
A. True
B. False
27: Gene environment correlation is the idea that many of an individual’s traits are supported by his or her genes and environment; correlation of ______ types exists
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
28: An active gene–environment correlation in which individuals seek out experiences and environments that complement their genetic tendencies is called niche picking
A. True
B. False
29: Epigenetic framework is a perspective stating that development results from reciprocal interactions between genetics and the environment such that the expression of genetic inheritance is influenced by environmental forces
A. True
B. False
30: The female reproductive _____ is called ovum
A. Egg cell
B. Zygote
C. Embryo
D. None of above
31: Germinal period also referred to as the period of the zygote, refers to the first ______ weeks after conception
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
32: Cell differentiation begins roughly _____ hours after fertilization when the organism consists of about 16 to 32 cells.
A. 24
B. 72
C. 36
D. 12
33: Cell differentiation begins roughly _____ hours after fertilization when the organism consists of about 16 to 32 cells.
A. 24
B. 72
C. 36
D. 12
34: A thin-walled, fluid-filled sphere containing an inner mass of cells from which the embryo will develop; is implanted into the uterine wall during the germinal period is called
A. Blastocyst
B. Trophoblast
C. Embryo
D. None of above
35: Prenatal organism between about 2 and 8 weeks after conception; a period of major structural development is called
A. Blastocyst
B. Trophoblast
C. Embryo
D. None of above
36: Prenatal organism between about 2 and 8 weeks after conception; a period of major structural development is called
A. Blastocyst
B. Trophoblast
C. Embryo
D. None of above
37: The process by which the blastocyst becomes attached to the uterine wall, completed by about ______ after fertilization is called implantation
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 30 days
D. 72 days
38: The principal organ of exchange between the mother and the developing organism, enabling the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and wastes via the umbilical cord is called.
A. Embryo
B. Placenta
C. Blastula
D. Gastrula
39: Embryonic period occurs about _________ after pregnancy, in which rapid structural development takes place.
A. 2 to 8 weeks
B. 4 to 5 weeks
C. 6 to 9 weeks
D. None of above
40: Neural tube forms in third week after conception and will develop into the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord).
A. True
B. False
41: A gonad in an embryo that has not yet differentiated into testes or ovaries is called indifferent gonad
A. True
B. False
42: A fine, down-like hair that covers the fetus’s body is called lanugo
A. True
B. False
43: Vernix caseosa is a greasy material that protects the ______ from abrasions, chapping, and hardening that can occur from exposure to amniotic fluid
A. Fetal skin
B. Embryo skin
C. Baby skin
D. All of above
44: A surgical procedure that removes the fetus from the uterus through the abdomen known as
A. Natural birth
B. Cesarean Section
C. Natural delivery
D. Operation
45: A quick overall assessment of a baby’s immediate health at birth, including appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration is called apgar scale
A. True
B. False
46: A quick overall assessment of a baby’s immediate health at birth, including appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration is called apgar scale
A. True
B. False
47: A birth that occurs ______ after conception is called preterm
A. 35 weeks
B. 36 weeks
C. 37 weeks
D. 38 weeks
48: An infant who is full term but who has significantly lower weight than expected for the gestational age is called
A. Small for date
B. Large for date
C. Average for date
D. Nobe of above
49: Infants who weigh less than 2,500 grams (5.5 pounds) at birth is called
A. Low birth weight
B. High birth weight
C. Average birth weight
D. All of above
50: Kangaroo care is an intervention for low-birth weight babies in which the infant is placed vertically against the parent’s chest, under the shirt, providing skin-to-skin contact.
A. True
B. False
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Biological Foundations and Prenatal Development MCQs
