Nursing Theories MCQs

Nursing Theories MCQs

Answer these 50+ Nursing Theories MCQs and see how sharp is your knowledge of Nursing Theories. Scroll down and let's start!

1: A ____________ is a set of concepts linked through propositions to explain a phenomenon.

A.   Concepts

B.   Model

C.   Theory

D.   Construct

2: Using theory in practice provides a ________ for nurses as they assess and provide care

A.   Framework

B.   Environment

C.   Context

D.   Outline

3: Effective therapeutic communication skills require _________.

A.   Correct use of complex medical terminology

B.   English-speaking patients or family members

C.   Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques

D.   Supervision by advanced life support personnel

4: Problem solving is to ____ as problem finding is to ____.

A.   African american; white

B.   Expertise; creativity

C.   Emotions-based

D.   Graduated driver licensing

A.   It may be the duty of the court to assume responsibility of guardianship for a patient who is non compos mentis

B.   Understand the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a proposed procedure, as well as, express his or her treatment preferences

C.   A note should be placed in the patients medical record indicating the patient's reason for refusal and a release form should be executed, signed dated and witnessed

D.   When an emergency situation does arise, there may be little opportunity to contact the attending physician, much less a consultant, thus consent is implied

6: About ________ of head-injury victims also have a spinal injury.

A.   5% to 10%

B.   15% to 20%

C.   40% to 50%

D.   60% to 75%

7: In the lactose operon of e. coli, the product of the laci gene is a(n) _____ of transcription.

A.   Positive regulator

B.   Activator

C.   Negative regulator

D.   Bound to the regulatory region of the operon.

8: Testicular cancer is known as a/an ________.

A.   Seminoma

B.   Varicocele

C.   Ejaculation

D.   Retrovirus

9: Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement.

A.   Extremity.

B.   Neck.

C.   Eye.

D.   Body.

10: If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the emt should ________.

A.   Apply direct pressure first

B.   Use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound

C.   Cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing

D.   All of these

11: The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration.

A.   30 seconds.

B.   1 minute.

C.   30 minutes.

D.   1 hour.

12: The examination is the ____ portion of the e/m service.


B.   Social

C.   The physician

D.   Physical

E.   Objective

A.   Safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance

B.   Neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical

C.   Transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place

D.   Collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification

14: Most poisonings occur via the __________ route.

A.   Ingestion.

B.   Injection.

C.   Inhalation.

D.   Absorption.

15: When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso.

A.   5 to 10 inches

B.   10 to 15 inches

C.   15 to 20 inches

D.   20 to 30 inches

16: When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________.





17: Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______.

A.   Be subjective and summarize the crime

B.   Be objective and factual

C.   Include your opinion of the nature of the incident

D.   Describe the status of the suspect(s)

18: Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the ems crew should _________.

A.   Protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

B.   Park at least 500 feet from the incident

C.   Immediately request additional resources.

D.   Prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

19: With the flowmeter set at 6 l/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to _______ oxygen.

A.   14%

B.   24%

C.   34%

D.   44%

20: The procedure and service codes are located in the ________ listing.

A.   9,000

B.   8,000

C.   8,995

D.   9,100

21: Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm.

A.   Sympathetic

B.   Injected poison

C.   Irritating toxin

D.   Deadly venom

22: Older adults have _____ vocabularies but _____ fluency.

A.   Extensive; extensive

B.   Extensive; limited

C.   Limited; limited

D.   Decline

23: An apneic infant or child should be ventilated a maximum of _______ times per minute.

A.   20

B.   30

C.   15

D.   10

24: Vacuum blood tubes come in all of the following sizes except ________ ml.

A.   Gray

B.   Cost

C.   Darker

D.   20

25: Texas voter turnout is _________ the united states as a whole.

A.   Long ballots.

B.   Increased

C.   Lower than in

D.   Slightly increased

26: Nephrotic syndrome develops as a result of _____.

A.   Damage to the glomeruli

B.   Sodium and protein

C.   Glomerulus

D.   Hypercalciuria

27: The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.

A.   Sharp and constant

B.   Steady and boring

C.   Intermittent and burning

D.   Intermittent and stabbing

28: Most nonparenteral medications are prescribed in the __________ system.

A.   Metric

B.   Dosage Strength

C.   6

D.   3

29: Occurrences involving liability for injury or property loss are called _____.

A.   Potentially compensable events

B.   Sentinel event

C.   Incident report

D.   Root-cause analysis

30: Terminally ill patients with life expectancies of ______ may opt to receive hospice services.

A.   6 months or less

B.   7 months or less

C.   8 months or less

D.   9 months or less

31: When living in a long-term care facility, a patients personal dignity is part of _____.

A.   Quality of life

B.   Palliation

C.   Social dimension

D.   Instrumental activity of daily living

32: Margaret sanger was a widely recognized leader in the _____ movement in the united states.

A.   Erotophilic

B.   Infatuation

C.   Validating

D.   Contraception

33: Birth certificate information is usually submitted to the ____ within 10 days of birth.

A.   National Center for Health Statistics

B.   National Center for Birth Statistics

C.   State departments of health or offices of vital statistics

D.   Admissions office

34: Cataract and lens replacement uses ____ different approaches.

A.   3

B.   2

C.   4

D.   1

35: If dr. johnson was a researcher with the tuskegee syphilis study, more than likely he ________.

A.   Provided treatment for all participants

B.   Told all participants that they were infected with syphilis

C.   Did not tell the participants that they were infected with syphilis

D.   Encouraged participants to get treatment when the study ended

36: Control processes depend on the _____, which shrinks with age.

A.   Amygdala

B.   Cerebellum

C.   Prefrontal cortex

D.   Hypothalamus

37: ________ variables are useful for establishing two-way communication between modules.

A.   Value

B.   Constant

C.   Reference

D.   I/O

E.   None of these

38: By the end of the ____prenatal month, sex organs develop and are soon visible via ultrasound.

A.   First

B.   Second

C.   Third

D.   Fourth

39: The primary reason for having a minimum of two examination rooms per physician is that it ____.

A.   Enables the ma to prepare one room while the physician examines

B.   Sphygmomanometer and otoscope and bp cuff

C.   A light on the door or wall is illuminated

D.   Soaking instruments in a detergent solution

40: Lcds only have jurisdiction in their ____.

A.   Region

B.   Anesthesiologist

C.   Chemical burn

D.   Networking

41: The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________.

A.   Kill their human host

B.   Use a human body as a home

C.   Spread disease and destruction

D.   Cause an immune response

42: The records of patients scheduled for tuesday should be pulled and collated on ________.

A.   Monday

B.   Tuesday

C.   Wednesday

D.   Thursday

43: When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________.

A.   Protect itself

B.   Go on alert

C.   Attempt to inactivate the foreign substance

D.   All of these answers are correct

44: By age ________, approximately half of adults have some gray hair.

A.   40

B.   50

C.   70

D.   80

45: A patient with disease of the liver or gallbladder may benefit from a _____.

A.   Low-sodium diet

B.   High-kcalorie, high-protein diet

C.   Fat-restricted diet

D.   Blenderized liquid diet

46: Large-scale environmental catastrophes _______.

A.   Result from human activities

B.   Have a negative impact on ecosystems

C.   Affect a variety of environmental factors

D.   All of the above

47: __________ plans reimburse physicians according to the procedures performed.

A.   Deductible

B.   Fee for service

C.   Capita

D.   Capitation

A.   0.05

B.   0.08

C.   0.10

D.   0.50

49: Positive support mechanisms after a loss include __________.

A.   Religious rituals.

B.   Blaming yourself for the loss.

C.   Family and friends.

D.   Both A and C

50: The dtap vaccine is given four times in the first 18 months of life because __________.

A.   It is a combination of a toxoid vaccine and subunit vaccine

B.   Toxoid vaccines and subunit vaccines are not as antigenic order to properly stimulate the immune system.

C.   Growth in tissue culture cells for many generations

D.   None of these