Inventory Management MCQs

Inventory Management MCQs

Answer these 80+ Inventory Management MCQs and assess your grip on the subject of Inventory Management.
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1: ________ sort items into A, B, and C categories according to criteria such as their unit costs, value, or the annual revenue they generate for a firm

A.   ABC classification method

B.   Workflow

C.   Mixed-model

D.   Lean Six Sigma

2: Activity-based costing is a system that accounts for inventory cost and enables companies to recognize the excessive costs

A.   True

B.   False

3: Inventory held in excess of a firm’s cycle stock to meet the expected increase in demand is known as

A.   ABC classification method

B.   Anticipation inventory

C.   Mixed-model

D.   Lean Six Sigma

4: Anticipation inventory is a customer order a company was unable to meet because the item demanded was not in stock

A.   True

B.   False

5: Why in Bullwhip effect supply chain in close proximity to the consumer (such as a retailer) to order more goods from the immediate upstream supplier to

A.   Meet the Quality

B.   Meet the Value

C.   Meet the demand

D.   None of these

6: A specific set of professional behaviors and values including confidentiality, accuracy,that all company employees must know and strictly is known as

A.   Code of ethics

B.   Continuous review systems

C.   Cycle counting

D.   Days of inventory in stock

7: ______ a system in which inventory levels of every item in stock, including its quantity and availability, are monitored and updated continuously

A.   Code of ethics

B.   Continuous review systems

C.   Cycle counting

D.   Days of inventory in stock

8: Counting a random sample or subset of inventory in stock in a particular location on a specific day. This statement is correct for

A.   Code of ethics

B.   Continuous review systems

C.   Cycle counting

D.   Days of inventory in stock

9: The inventory that a company carries to satisfy its normal cycle of sales orders or production requirements is known as

A.   Code of ethics

B.   Cycle stock

C.   Cycle counting

D.   Days of inventory in stock

10: Define Days of inventory in stock.

A.   The number of days of inventory a firm has on hand to meet its sales

B.   A function that enables production to continue temporarily while the production problem at a given process stage is resolved

C.   Process whereby an upstream supply chain member such as a manufacturer sells directly to the final consumer

D.   The percentage of customer orders that can be satisfied from inventory in stock

11: Decoupling is a function that enables production to _____ while the production problem at a given process stage is resolved

A.   Continue temporarily

B.   Continue permanently

C.   Both a & b

D.   None of these

12: _______ is a process whereby an upstream supply chain member such as a manufacturer sells directly to the final consumer

A.   Code of ethics

B.   Disintermediation

C.   Cycle counting

D.   Days of inventory in stock

13: The percentage of customer orders that can be satisfied from inventory in stock is known as

A.   Fill rate

B.   Disintermediation

C.   Holding costs

D.   Hedge inventory

14: Which type of inventory is purchased in advance to guard against uncertainties in pricing?

A.   Fill rate

B.   Disintermediation

C.   Holding costs

D.   Hedge inventory

15: Holding costs associated with holding (carrying) inventory

A.   True

B.   False

16: ________ measure of how frequently a business sells its inventory in a given time period

A.   Fill rate

B.   Disintermediation

C.   Holding costs

D.   Inventory turnover

17: Lost sales occur when a customer doesn’t buy an item if that item is not in stock

A.   True

B.   False

18: A system in which optimum levels of inventory are determined and updated continuously across the supply chain network based on the demand variability is known as

A.   Multi-echelon inventory systems

B.   Order fulfillment lead time

C.   Ordering costs

D.   None of these

19: Order fulfillment lead time is the the average time it takes from the submission of a customer’s purchase order until the company delivers the order

A.   Multi-echelon inventory systems

B.   Order fulfillment lead time

C.   Ordering costs

D.   None of these

A.   Multi-echelon inventory systems

B.   Order fulfillment lead time

C.   Ordering costs

D.   None of these

21: A system in which inventory is physically counted periodically and all reordering takes place at these intervals is known as

A.   Multi-echelon inventory systems

B.   Order fulfillment lead time

C.   Periodic review systems

D.   None of these

22: _______ determining the real quantity of inventory that is physically available on a periodic basis

A.   Multi-echelon inventory systems

B.   Order fulfillment lead time

C.   Periodic review systems

D.   Physical count

23: Portfolio planning is a channel alignment strategy in which a company signs _______ with one or two suppliers

A.   Medium-term contracts

B.   Short-term contracts

C.   Small-term contracts

D.   Long-term contracts

24: Money paid to an upstream supplier for materials or goods purchased Is known as

A.   Purchase costs

B.   Radio frequency identification

C.   Setup costs

D.   Single-echelon inventory systems

25: RFID stands for

A.   Request for information

B.   Radio frequency identification

C.   Final Investment Decision

D.   None of these

26: Setup costs the costs of setting up the machines or changing over production from one item to another

A.   True

B.   False

27: ______ is a system in which each supply chain partner sequentially forecasts demand that invariably leads to the bullwhip effect

A.   Single-echelon inventory systems

B.   Purchase costs

C.   Radio frequency identification

D.   Setup costs

28: _______ is the System Ordering the entire inventory of a product at one time and it is not replenished

A.   Single-echelon inventory systems

B.   Single-period system

C.   Radio frequency identification

D.   Setup costs

29: In Smoothing inventories inventories held to smooth out fluctuations in production

A.   True

B.   False

30: Single-echelon inventory systems

A.   Stock-out costs

B.   Radio frequency identification

C.   Setup costs

31: Transportation inventories transit in containers or trucks (also known as pipeline inventories)

A.   True

B.   False

32: ABC Inventory Classification is an approach used to help companies manage their independent demand inventories.

A.   True

B.   False

33: Anticipation Inventories can be met ______ of expected high demand

A.   During periods

B.   After Periods

C.   Both a & b

D.   None of these

34: Forecasts of demand combined with additions of safety stock that tend to amplify purchases from suppliers is known as _______ .

A.   Bullwhip Effect

B.   Cycle Inventories

C.   Both a & b

D.   None of these

35: Cash-to-Cash Cycle Time indicating how ______ is tied up in the main cash- producing and cash- consuming area .

A.   Long cash

B.   Small cash

C.   Medium cash

D.   None of these

36: Cycle Inventories created when the firm _______ a quantity large enough to last until the next purchase or production period.

A.   Purchases

B.   Produces

C.   Both a & b

D.   None of these

37: Days Payable Outstanding measure that tells about how long it takes a company to pay its creditors, such as suppliers .

A.   True

B.   False

38: An inventory performance measure that indicates the average number of days it takes a company to collect is known as _____ .

A.   Days of Receivables Outstanding

B.   Days Payable Outstanding

C.   Dependent Demand

D.   ALL OF THESE

39: Dependent demand required to build end-items and are dependent on the ________ of the finished product .

A.   Internal demand

B.   Executable demand

C.   External demand

D.   Both b & c

40: The order quantity that will minimize the sum of the annual inventory holding cost and the annual order cost is known as ______ .

A.   Economic Order Quantity

B.   Finished Goods

C.   Hedge Inventories

D.   None of these

41: Finished Goods completed products ready for delivery to ______ .

A.   CEO

B.   Employee

C.   Customers

D.   None of these

42: Hedge inventories used when companies stockpile inventories to protect against ______ or supply shortages

A.   Price increases

B.   Price decreases

C.   Both a & b

D.   None of these

43: Independent Demand is the external demand for a firm’s finished products

A.   True

B.   False

44: The costs associated with storing inventories is known as ______ .

A.   Inventory Carrying Costs

B.   Inventory Days of Supply

C.   Inventory Management Performance

D.   None of these

45: Inventory Days of Supply is an inventory performance measure that tells management how long inventory is held before it is sold.

A.   True

B.   False

46: ________ measures of how well companies are creating good customer service while keeping inventories low.

A.   Inventory Carrying Costs

B.   Inventory Days of Supply

C.   Inventory Management Performance

D.   None of these

47: Maintenance, repair, and operating supplies is defined as purchased items consumed in-house or used to support _______ .

A.   Manufacturing

B.   Service processes

C.   Both a & b

D.   None of these

48: Optimal review period used for the periodic review model.

A.   True

B.   False

49: The administrative costs associated with purchasing items is known as _______ .

A.   Order Costs

B.   Order Lead Time

C.   Periodic Review Model

D.   None of these

50: The time from order receipt to delivery to the customer is known as _______

A.   Order Costs

B.   Order Lead Time

C.   Periodic Review Model

D.   None of these

51: Periodic review model requires ________ stock levels than the reorder point models.

A.   Higher safety

B.   Normal safety

C.   Lowest safety

D.   None of these

52: EOQ stands for _____ .

A.   Economic order quantity

B.   Energy optimizing quantum

C.   Energy on time

D.   None of these

53: Which model assumes the purchase lead time to be constant; however, the time between orders would vary ?

A.   Probabilistic Demand Reorder Point Model

B.   Quantity Discount Model

C.   Periodic Review Model

D.   None of these

54: The actual cost of the items bought from suppliers is known as ______

A.   Purchase Cost

B.   Buying cost

C.   Salling cost

D.   Both a & b

55: The actual cost of the items bought from suppliers is known as ______

A.   Purchase Cost

B.   Buying cost

C.   Salling cost

D.   Both a & b

56: Quantity Discount Model used when the purchase price is allowed to vary—for instance, when quantity discounts are offered by a supplier Raw Materials.

A.   True

B.   False

57: The inventory on-hand needed to satisfy demand during the order lead time period is known as _____ .

A.   Reorder Point

B.   Robust Model

C.   Safety Stocks

D.   Both a & b

58: Robust model refers to the flatness of the ________ curve, which means the EOQ model can be used in a variety of situations.

A.   Total inventory cost

B.   Fifty percent inventory cost

C.   Twenty-five percent inventory cost

D.   None of these

59: Safety Stocks are held to satisfy demand when delivery or production problems occur, or when demand is higher than expected .

A.   True

B.   False

60: Service Level is the ______ of time the firm does not want to stockout during the order lead time period.

A.   Percentage

B.   Total

C.   50 %

D.   None of these

61: Stockout Costs is encountered when the _______ for items cannot be met

A.   Internal demand

B.   External demand

C.   Both a & b

D.   None of these

62: Target Inventory Level is the order-up-to level when using the periodic review model .

A.   True

B.   False

63: The sum of the annual inventory carrying costs, order costs, stockout costs, and purchase costs is known as _______ .

A.   Total Annual Inventory Costs

B.   Transportation Inventories

C.   Work-in-Process

D.   Assembly Line Layouts

64: These inventories are owned by the firm and are in-transit either in-bound to the firm or out-bound to the firm’s customers is known as ______ .

A.   Total Annual Inventory Costs

B.   Transportation Inventories

C.   Work-in-Process

D.   Assembly Line Layouts

65: Work-in-Process is an item in some intermediate stage of processing by

A.   The firm .

B.   True

C.   False

66: Understanding the correct symbol to use to represent an action or activity in material flow mapping is essential. Which symbol is used to indicate information flow?

A.   Rounded rectangle

B.   Triangle

C.   Solid arrow

D.   Dashed arrow

67: Understanding the correct symbol to use to represent an action or activity in material flow mapping is essential. Which symbol is used to indicate the start or end of a process?

A.   Rounded rectangle

B.   Triangle

C.   Solid arrow

D.   Dashed arrow

68: Understanding the correct symbol to use to represent an action or activity in material flow mapping is essential. Which symbol is used to indicate a delay or storage?

A.   Rounded rectangle

B.   Triangle

C.   Solid arrow

D.   Dashed arrow

69: What is another term used to describe material flow mapping?

A.   Process mapping

B.   Process flowcharting

C.   Value stream mapping

D.   All of the above

70: When discussing the TOC, _______ refers to the control or scheduling of work releases to the facility.

A.   Drum

B.   Buffer

C.   Rope

D.   Bottleneck

71: When discussing the TOC, the term _______ represents the work center that sets the pace for the entire facility.

A.   Drum

B.   Buffer

C.   Rope

D.   Bottleneck

72: The use of a computer graphics applications in product design is called _______.

A.   Computer numerically controlled machines (CNC)

B.   Computer aided design (CAD)

C.   Computer aided manufacturing (CAM)

D.   Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM)

73: _______ is used to manage the entire product design system including planning, scheduling, and decision-making.

A.   A computer numerically controlled machine (CNC)

B.   Computer aided design (CAD)

C.   Computer aided manufacturing (CAM)

D.   Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM)

74: _______ is a programmable machine capable of storing machining steps for repetitively manufactured parts.

A.   A computer numerically controlled machine (CNC)

B.   Computer aided design (CAD)

C.   Computer aided manufacturing (CAM)

D.   Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM)

75: Cellular layouts are an example of which of the following?

A.   Product-focused layouts

B.   Process-focused layouts

C.   Group technology layouts

D.   Project layouts

76: Assembly line layouts are examples of which of the following?

A.   Product-focused layouts

B.   Process-focused layouts

C.   Group technology layouts

D.   Project layouts

77: Machine shop layouts are examples of which of the following?

A.   Product-focused layouts

B.   Process-focused layouts

C.   Group technology layouts

D.   Project layouts

78: This type of layout enables high-volume output while making standardized products:

A.   Product-focused layout

B.   Process-focused layout

C.   Group technology layout

D.   Project layout

79: A closeness desirability rating is used in which type of layout?

A.   Fixed-position layout

B.   Office layout

C.   Retail layout

D.   Servicescape

80: Focal points that are added to center-aisle locations are known as _______.

A.   Servicescapes

B.   Sight lines

C.   Visual merchandising

D.   Micro-merchandising

81: When it comes to right-of-way, ""first in, first out"" means _____.

A.   The first road user at an intersection does not have to check for cross traffic

B.   The first road user at an intersection must leave as quickly as possible

C.   Yield to any road users who arrived before you

D.   Yield to the first road user who arrives after you

82: ____________ is an example of a retailer whose merchandise mix is both wide and deep?

A.   A farmers' market

B.   City Lights Bookstore

C.   Sunglass Hut

D.   Costco

E.   Amazon

83: Experts advise that bad news for employees should be delivered __________ whenever possible.

A.   In person

B.   Via digital media.

C.   By courier.

D.   Via certified mail

84: The retailer can _____ to liquidate markdown merchandise.

A.   Sell merchandise over an online auction

B.   Horizontal Price Fixing

C.   Self Selected Variable Pricing

D.   Price Lining

85: Short-sea shipping is widely accepted and practiced in ____.

A.   North America

B.   South America

C.   Europe

D.   Asia