Operations Management MCQs
Operations Management MCQs
Answer these 600+ Operations Management MCQs and see how sharp is your knowledge of Operations Management. Scroll down and let's start!
1: Which of the following would be relevant to the VOB (Voice of Business)?
A. All of these
B. ROI
C. Free Cash Flows
D. The P&L statement
2: A credit agency creates a credit report which is then used to create a loan agreement. Who is the supplier in the process of making a loan agreement?
A. The customer whose data is used in the report
B. There is no supplier
C. Bank teller
D. The credit agency
3: True or false? A good SIPOC diagram should always focus on one supplier.
A. False
B. True
4: When creating a multi vari chart, each temporal occurrence should contain the measurements of at least _______ consecutive units.
A. one
B. five
C. three
D. seven
5: A ________ indicates that a process event or measurement is likely to fall within that limit.
A. item limit
B. population limit
C. control limit
D. sample limit
6: Is a barrel of crude oil an output or an input?
A. It depends on the context
B. Output
C. Input
7: Which term describes how an organization expects to achieve its missions and goals?
A. SWOT
B. Competitive Advantage
C. Strategy
D. Tactic
8: True or false? Regression tests are functional tests.
A. False
B. True
9: True or false? The ordering of SIPOC categories does not matter.
A. True
B. False
10: True or false? Affinity diagrams are best created by a cross-functional team.
A. True
B. FALSE
11: The international quality standard for for product design, manufacture, and distribution is known as:
A. QS-5000
B. ISO 5000
C. QS-9000
D. ISO 9000
12: Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 steps for an FMEA?
A. All of these are included in the 10 steps
B. Calculate the risk priority number for each effect
C. Review the process or the product
D. Prioritize the failure modes for action
13: Process boundaries are important for _________.
A. clearly stating the beginning, end, and function of a process.
B. setting the cost ceiling
C. defining a volume limit
D. determining stakeholders
14: (True or False): Key success factors are those activities that are key to achieving competitive advantage
A. False
B. True
15: (True or False): A system that permits the manufacturing of large quantities of identical goods using repetitive actions by people or machines is called mass production.
A. True
B. False
16: Which of the following is the SIPOC framework used for?
A. All of these
B. Defining relationships with inputs and suppliers
C. Defining process scope
D. Identifying customers
17: FMEA team leaders are in charge of:
A. Making sure the team stays on track toward the completion of the FMEA
B. Ensuring the team is prepared with all necessary materials
C. all of these
D. Planning and facilitating meetings
18: Which of the following is a goal of the SIPOC framework?
A. Eliminate waste processes
B. Provide a better understanding of the customer
C. All of these
D. Clearly define a process
19: What is the target RPN for FMEAs?
A. 250
B. There is no target FMEA, it's up to the company to decide how much to improve
C. 500
D. 100
20: A problem statement is a _________.
A. an alarm in the processing chain of command
B. list of risks
C. clear description of the issues that a team needs to address
D. a formal complain from a customer
21: True or false? A processes can have the same DPU, but very different DPO.
A. FALSE
B. True
22: True or False? The failure modes with the highest RPNs should be attended to first.
A. True
B. False
23: Which of the following would be an incorrectly labeled output?
A. A smartphone
B. A car
C. A well made car
D. A t-shirt
24: True or false? Suppliers can come from internal entities.
A. False
B. True
25: What is the correct order of the main phases in the product life cycle?
A. Maturity, Saturation, Growth, Decline
B. Maturity, Growth, Saturation, Decline
C. Growth, Saturation, Growth, Decline
D. Growth, Maturity, Saturation, Decline
26: SIPOC represents the five key elements of a ______ map.
A. product
B. process
C. cost
D. road
27: A firm can effectively use its operations function to yield competitive advantage through all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. constant innovation of new products
B. customization of the product
C. setting equipment utilization goals below the industry average
D. speed of delivery
28: True or false? The gross margin often reflects the value created during the process.
A. False
B. True
29: (True or False): It is easier to measure productivity for an operation that provides services than for one that produces goods since there is no material used in services.
A. False
B. True
30: What is the commonly accepted variable for Inputs?
A. I
B. Alpha
C. Y
D. X
31: What is another name for a "Fishbone Diagram"?
A. A cause and effect diagram
B. A RACI Diagram
C. A Pie Chart
D. A GANTT Diagram
32: Operations management includes all of these activities, EXCEPT:
A. secure financial resources
B. oversee the transformation process
C. maintain quality
D. schedule work
33: Which of the following best describes a bar chart that depicts the frequencies of numerical or measurement data?
A. Gantt Chart
B. Process Map
C. Check Sheet
D. Histogram
34: What is the planning method used to show the tasks associated with a project, the people in charge of completing the tasks and the timelines?
A. Pie chart
B. Pareto chart
C. Gantt chart
D. Histogram
35: What is the least likely decision made by an Operations Manager?
A. Selecting the location and layout of a facility
B. How much capacity is required to balance demand
C. Deciding which market areas to manufacture products for
D. How to use quality techniques to reduce waste
36: True of false? You can always use the same standard deviation when calculating a sigma score, regardless of time frame.
A. False
B. TRUE
37: A full factorial experiment has ______ factor(s) with _______ level(s) each.
A. one; multiple
B. a couple ; no
C. multiple; one
D. multiple; multiple
38: Which of the following would be an observational study?
A. a behavior chart
B. a histogram
C. a bell curve
D. a box and whisker plot
39: Which of the following is NOT used when determining RPN?
A. Detection
B. Cost
C. Indenture levels
D. Probability
40: Which of the following is NOT a DMAIC term?
A. Measure
B. Analyze
C. Cause
D. Define
41: ________ refers to the consequences of a failure if it should occur.
A. Detection
B. Severity
C. Intensity
D. Occurrence
42: Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high volume, low variety?
A. A carpenter
B. A family doctor
C. A front office bank
D. A fast food restaurant
43: When designing an experiment, which category would inputs be included in?
A. Response
B. Levels
C. Factors
D. None of these
44: Which of the following best describes 'failure modes'?
A. The number of times a process or product fails during testing
B. All the ways a process or product can fail
C. The number of times a process or product fails during the product's launch
D. None of these
45: How do you calculate DPU (defects per unit)?
A. (Number of defects observed)/(Number of units inspected)
B. (Cost per defect)/(Total defects)
C. (Number of units inspected)/(Number of defects) - (Number of defects)
D. (Number of units inspected)/(Number of defects observed)
46: A high sigma score indicates _____ defects.
A. moderate
B. severe
C. few
D. many
47: Within the SIPOC framework, an Iphone is an example of a/an _______.
A. cost
B. output
C. input
D. customer
48: DFMEA stands for _______.
A. Dependent Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
B. Dynamic Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
C. Detrimental Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
D. Design Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
49: Which of the following options list the 3 factors used to determine the relative risk of a failure?
A. Ranking, Severity, and Frequency
B. Severity, Ranking, and Time
C. Frequency, Ranking, and Category
D. Severity, Occurrence, and Detection
50: The costs incurred when a customer returns a defective product are best described as a _____ Cost-of-poor-quality (COPQ).
A. Resultant
B. Controllable
C. Equipment
D. Cheap
51: A company that extracts and refines oil uses a/an ______ process.
A. integrated
B. upstream
C. downstream
D. connected
52: Which of the following formulas best shows how to obtain a risk priority number (RPN)?
A. severity x time x detection
B. severity + occurrence + detection
C. severity x occurrence x detection
D. severity + time + detection
53: A tester creates an experiment that consistently produces the same result. This is an example of _______.
A. Reproducibility
B. None of these
C. Regression
D. Repeatability
54: (True or False): Key success factors and core competencies are synonyms
A. False
B. True
55: True or false? Variables that are CTQ must also be CTC.
A. False
B. True
56: Statistics are an important part of the analysis phase. What is the largest value minus the smallest value?
A. The range
B. The standard deviation
C. The mean
D. The variance
57: In order to analyze the significance of a population sample, you must calculate __________.
A. the sharpe ratio
B. repeatability sigmas
C. confidence intervals
D. chi squared
58: An operations manager would be responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. selecting suppliers
B. safety and maintenance
C. recruiting employees
D. sales and marketing
59: What does FMEA stand for?
A. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis
B. First Mode and Efficient Analysis
C. First Model and Efficient Analysis
D. Failure Model and Effect Analysis
60: Which element of SIPOC would a RACI chart relate to?
A. Customer
B. Outputs
C. Inputs
D. Process
61: A customer writes an email to customer support. A representative receives the email, finds the relevant information, and sends a response email back to the customer. How should the customer be categorized within SIPOC?
A. As an input
B. As a supplier only
C. Both as a supplier and as a customer.
D. As a customer only
62: Which of the following is NOT a common categorization in Value Add Analysis?
A. Non value adding
B. Value enabling
C. Value failure
D. Value adding
63: True or false? Outputs exclusively refer to products or services delivered to external customers.
A. False
B. True
64: Which of the following is NOT an example of non-functional testing?
A. Endurance testing
B. Black box testing
C. Baseline testing
D. Compatibility testing
65: What is the commonly accepted variable for Outputs?
A. Y
B. X
C. Z
D. O
66: The proportion of units that go through a process for the first time without defect is called _______.
A. the KPI
B. the first pass yield
C. the first pass inspection
D. the success yield
67: SIPOC is a tool used within the greater ______ process.
A. DFQ
B. Cost Cutting
C. CTQ
D. DMAIC
68: Which of the following would be best used to compare statistical models?
A. Alpha Test
B. Black Box Test
C. Stress Test
D. F-test
69: True or False? Fishbone charts are used to plot measurements taken over a specific time period.
A. True
B. False
70: The latency period is the _________.
A. average time between detection and repair
B. average time between system failures
C. average time between failure and detection
D. average time between production and sale
71: What does poka-yoke refer to?
A. Fault testing
B. Cost Acquisition
C. Mistake proofing
D. Rapid repair
72: The frequency in which failure is occurring is referred to as:
A. Severity
B. Occurrence
C. Frequency
D. Detection
73: What is the approach that tries to match the output of manufacturing with market demand, in order to minimize inventories?
A. CAD
B. MRP
C. JIT
D. CAM
74: Six Sigma seeks to ensure a quality level of ____ defects per million opportunities.
A. 33.4
B. 0.034
C. 3.4
D. 0.34
75: Which of the following would be help indicate errors when curve-fitting?
A. The KPI compression
B. KLOC Indentation Level
C. The Kolmogorov-Smirov statistic
D. The Smith Buonanno Metric
76: True or False? An organizations strategy is its purpose or rationale for an organizations existence
A. False
B. True
77: Which of the following is NOT a SIPOC category?
A. Customer
B. Inputs
C. Costs
D. Outputs
78: What should be the first step of the experiment design process?
A. Brainstorm
B. Analyze the data
C. Define the objectives
D. Define the problem
79: What type of process is Operations Management considered?
A. Transitional
B. Transformational
C. Translational
D. Transactional
80: Extracting raw materials is an example of a/an ________ process.
A. upstream
B. direct
C. indirect
D. downstream
81: Digging for gold would be an example of a/an ______ process.
A. indirect
B. integrated
C. upstream
D. downstream
82: When building a SIPOC diagram, what should you first define?
A. The required inputs
B. The VOC (Voice of Customer)
C. The process you want to map
D. The desired output
83: A shipment tracking ID is an example of a/an _______.
A. input
B. output
84: Which of the following is least likely to be a Cost Leadership competitive advantage?
A. low overhead
B. inventory management
C. broad product line
D. mass production
85: When building a SIPOC diagram you should start with ______.
A. the customer
B. the supplier
C. the opportunity
D. the process
86: (True or False): SWOT analysis is a method of determining external strengths and weaknesses and internal opportunities and threats
A. True
B. False
87: Fishbone diagrams are used for ______ identification.
A. output
B. customer
C. input
D. export
88: As a general rule of thumb, how many high-level steps should be included in the process description?
A. 10 - 15
B. 4 - 7
C. 8 - 10
D. 1 - 3
89: Which of the following terms BEST describes the measures that have already been achieved/recorded by a person or company that can be used to set initial goals as defined by Six Sigma.
A. Baselines
B. Metrics
C. Benchmarks
D. None of these
90: Which of the following would non-functional testing be used for?
A. Testing a result
B. Testing a system's architecture
C. Testing a program behavior
D. Testing a specific function
91: Which of these international operations strategies involves a focus on high cost reductions and low local responsiveness?
A. global strategy
B. transnational strategy
C. multidomestic strategy
D. international strategy
92: Which of the following would be the best first step towards a successful FMEA?
A. Assign a severity ranking for each effect
B. List potential effects of each failure mode
C. Brainstorm potential failure modes
D. Review the process or product
93: What is the term used to describe the RPN that's determined after reevaluating the severity, occurrence, and detection rankings?
A. Remaining RPM
B. Resulting RPM
C. Improved RPM
D. Corrected RPM
94: A person's height is an example of _______ data, whereas number of students in a class is an example of ______ data.
A. congruent; incongruent
B. continuous; discrete
C. discrete; continuous
D. boolean, integer
95: Which of the following materials process operation type is associated with the highest volume and lowest variety?
A. batch process
B. job shop
C. mass process
D. continuous process
96: What is licensing of product manufacturing of a product to other firms?
A. Franchising
B. Licensing
C. Multi Site Rationalization
D. Outsourcing
97: A jammed manufacturing tool is an example of ______.
A. a failure mode
B. failure cost
C. failure cause
D. a failure effect
98: There is a 50% chance that a bike will be produced with a defect. This probability is called the __________.
A. first pass yield
B. DPU
C. throughput yield
D. DPMO
99: In a normal distribution, 68% of the data will occur within:
A. . +/- 1 standard deviation
B. . +/- 2 standard deviation
C. . +/- 4 standard deviation
D. . +/- 5 standard deviation
100: What is the purpose of FMEA?
A. To prevent process and product problems BEFORE they occur
B. To prevent process and product problems AFTER they occur
C. All of these
D. To prevent process and product problems in real-time as they're occurring
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