Oracle 10g Database Administration MCQs
Oracle 10g Database Administration MCQs
These Oracle 10g Database Administration multiple-choice questions and their answers will help you strengthen your grip on the subject of Oracle 10g Database Administration. You can prepare for an upcoming exam or job interview with these 100+ Oracle 10g Database Administration MCQs.
So scroll down and start answering.
1: Which data dictionary view shows the available free space in a certain tablespace?
A. DBA_EXTENTS
B. V$FREESPACE
C. DBA_FREE_SPACE
D. DBA_TABLESPACFS
2: User Smith created indexes on some tables owned by user John. The following has to be displayed:
1.Index names
2.Index types
Which data dictionary view(s) should be queried?
A. DBA_INDEXES only
B. DBA_IND_COLUMNS only
C. DBA_INDEXES and DBA_USERS
D. DBA_IND COLUMNS and DBA_USERS
3: Which conditions among the following must be met, if the tablespace is to be made read only?
A. The tablespace must contain an active rollback segments
B. The tablespace must be online
C. The tablespace must not contain any active rollback segments
D. The tablespace must not be involved in an open backup
E. The tablespace must be involved in an open backup
4: When is SGA created in an Oracle database environment?
A. When the database is created
B. When the instance is started
C. When the database is mounted
D. When a user process is started
5: What do ASM disk groups provide?
A. Redundancy through striping
B. Performance through mirroring
C. Redundancy through mirroring
D. Performance through striping
6: When a deadlock shutdown is detected by Oracle, where is the trace file generated?
A. SQL_TRACE
B. TRACE_DEST
C. USER_DUMP_DEST
D. CORE_DUMP_DEST
7: Where is the free space managed, for a tablespace created with automatic segment-space management?
A. In the extent
B. In the control file
C. In the data dictionary
D. In the undo tablespace
8: Which statement is valid regarding index clusters?
A. Index clusters can only be used for tables with low cardinality columns
B. Index clusters are generally well suited for tables that have many full table scans
C. Normal B-Tree indexes do not store null key values, whereas cluster indexes store null keys
D. A cluster index always takes up much more storage space than a normal index for the same set of key values
9: Where can a SQL Tuning Set(STS) be created from?
A. Several SQLs statements from the AWR
B. One or more other STSs
C. A single SQL statement
D. Only the most high-load SQL statements in the database
10: Which of the following sets of tablespaces is mandatory for any Oracle 10g database?
A. SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and UNDOTBS
B. SYSTEM and UNDOTBS
C. SYSAUX and UNDOTBS
D. SYSTEM and SYSAUX
11: For which two tasks would it be best not to use the utility SQL*Loader?
A. When loading selected rows into each table
B. When loading data from an export dump file
C. When loading data from disk, tape, or named pipes
D. When data is not being inserted from a flat file
12: Which of the following is true if the alter tablespace statement is used and the TEMPORARY clause is specified?
A. Oracle no longer performs any checkpoint for the online datafiles in the tablespace
B. Oracle performs a checkpoint for all online datafiles in the tablespace
C. Oracle does not ensure that all files are written
D. The offline files may require media recovery before the tablespace is brought online
E. The offline files may require media recovery after the tablespace is brought online
13: What statistics will Oracle collect If LIST subpartitioning is used, and the value of the GRANULARITY argument is specified as AUTO?
A. Global statistics only
B. Global and partition statistics only
C. Global, partition, and subpartition statistics
D. No partitioned table statistics
14: Which of the following conditions should be met before a RENAME DATAFILE with the alter tablespace command is used?
A. The datafile must be taken offline before renaming
B. The database must be open
C. When only a single datafile is to be renamed
D. When only a single datafile on the same drive is to be renamed
15: A table is stored in a data dictionary managed tablespace. Which two columns are required from DBA_TABLES to determine the size of the extent when it extends?
A. BLOCKS
B. PCT_FREE
C. NEXT_EXTENT
D. PCT_INCREASE
16: How can the SQL Access Advisor be managed?
A. Through the DBMS_SQLTUNE package
B. Through the DBMS_ADVISOR package
C. Through the SQL_TUNE package
D. Through the DBA_ADVISOR package
17: If the DBCA is used to create a new database, when is the creation of the new flash recovery area mandatory?
A. Always
B. Only if the automatic backup using the OEM is configured
C. Only if user-managed backups is configured
D. Only if the database is run in the archive log mode
18: Which command would revoke the ROLE_DATA role from all users?
A. REVOKE role_data FROM ALL;
B. REVOKE role_data FROM PUBLIC;
C. REVOKE role_data FROM default;
D. REVOKE role_data FROM ALL_USERS
19: Which of the following is a new initialization parameter for Oracle Database 10g?
A. UNDO_SUPPRESS_ERRORS
B. PARALLEL_AUTOMATIC_TUNING
C. RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT
D. SHARED_SERVER
20: Which three statements among the following are true about rebuilding indexes?
A. The ALTER INDEX REBUILD command is used to change the storage characteristics of an index
B. Using the ALTER INDEX REBUILD is usually faster than dropping and recreating an index because it uses the fast full scan feature
C. Oracle8i allows for the creation of an index or re-creation of an existing index while allowing concurrent operations on the base table
D. When building an index, the NOLOGGING and UNRECOVERABLE keywords can be used concurrently to reduce the time it takes to rebuild itself
21: Which of the following are considered types of segments?
A. Only LOBS
B. Only nested tables
C. Only index-organized tables
D. Only LOBS and index-organized tables
E. Nested tables, LOBS, index-organized tables, and boot straps
22: Examine the following SQL statement:
CREATE TABLESPACE userdata
DATAFILE "/oracle/oradata/userdata_0l.dbf" SIZE 100M
LOCALLY MANAGED UNIFORM SIZE 1M
AUTOMATIC SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT;
Which part of the tablespace will be of a uniform size of 1 MB?
A. Extent
B. Segment
C. Oracle block
D. Operating system block
23: What are the two main advantages of using bitmap indexes?
A. Bitmap indexes use less storage space
B. Bitmap indexes are easy to maintain when DML statements are issued
C. Bitmap segments are updated upon COMMIT, at the end of the transaction
D. Bitmap indexes work very fast with multiple predicates that are combined with AND, OR, and NOT operators
24: What does the RMAN CATALOG command do?
A. Helps create image copies of datafiles
B. Helps create image copies of current control files
C. Helps catalog any new files that aren't a part of the recovery catalog
D. Helps catalog only the old files
25: How is the SQL profile used?
A. In the tuning mode of the optimizer only
B. In the normal mode of the optimizer
C. In neither the tuning nor the normal mode of the optimizer
D. Along with existing statistics, to get better SQL execution plans
26: Which of the following commands are used to copy ASM files?
A. RMAN commands
B. OMF commands
C. Operating system commands
D. Logical Volume Manager commands
27: What will happen if the value of the SGA_TARGET parameter is set higher than the value of the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter at instance startup?
A. The instance will not start
B. SGA_TARGET will become equal to the SGA_MAX_SIZE value
C. The database will ignore the SGA_TARGET parameter
D. SGA_MAX_SIZE is automatically raised, so it is equal to the SGA_TARGET value
28: What does the ARBn background process do in an ASM instance?
A. Coordinates disk activity
B. Performs disk rebalance work
C. Coordinates disk rebalance work
D. Manages the RBAL process
29: When there is a monotonically increasing sequence number as an indexed column, which of the following is true?
A. Hash-partitioned global indexes are useful
B. Range-partitioned global indexes are better
C. Hash-partitioned local indexes are better
D. Range-partitioned local indexes are better
30: Consider this SQL statement:
UPDATE employees SET first_name = "John"
WHERE emp_id = 1009;
COMMIT;
What happens when a user issues the COMMIT in the above SQL statement?
A. The server process places the commit record in the redo log buffer
B. Log Writer (LGWR) writes the redo log buffer entries to the redo log files and data files
C. The user process notifies the server process that the transaction is complete
D. The user process notifies the server process that the resource locks can be released
31: Which of the following commands must be used to apply incremental backups?
A. RECOVER BACKUP OF DATABASE
B. RECOVER DATAFILE
C. RECOVER COPY OF DATAFILE
D. RECOVER COPY OF DATABASE
32: To grant a system privilege with the GRANT statement, one should:
A. Have been granted the GRANT ROLE PRIVILEGE system privilege
B. Have been granted the system privilege with the ADMIN OPTION
C. Have been granted the GRANT ANY PRIVILEGE system privilege
D. Have been granted the system privilege with the GRANT OPTION
33: For what purpose is the initialization parameter UNDO_RETENTION used?
A. To specify the length of time Oracle must retain undo data in the undo tablespace
B. To specify the length of time Oracle must retain undo data in the flash recovery area
C. To specify the length of time Oracle must retain undo data in the data files
D. To specify the length of time Oracle will retain undo data in the flashback database logs
34: Which three out of the following are the physical structures that constitute the Oracle database?
A. Segment
B. Data file
C. Log file
D. Tablespace
E. Control file
35: Which view provides the names of all the data dictionary views?
A. DBA_NAMES
B. DBA_TABLES
C. DICTIONARY
D. DBA_DICTIONARY
36: Which of the following is true when John uses the RESETLOGS option?
A. He doesn't need to back up the database
B. He must back up the database right away
C. He can use archive redo logs from an older incarnation of the database
D. He can't use archive redo logs from an older incarnation of the database
37: Which data dictionary view should be used to get a list of object privileges for all database users?
A. DBA_TAB_PRIVS
B. ALL_TAB_PRIVS
C. USER_TAB_PRIVS
D. ALL_TAB_PRIVS_MADE
38: Which of the following helps the user identify his statement in the DBA_TUNE_MVIEW view?
A. The STATEMENT variable
B. The STATEMENT_ID column
C. The VIEW_ID column
D. The TASK_NAME variable
39: Which three major tuning areas does OEM Database Control provide information about?
A. Most-used objects
B. Top SQL statements
C. Memory usage
D. Top sessions affecting the instance
E. CPU and wait classes
40: Which of the following would technical analysis include?
A. Company financials
B. Market statistics
C. Stock pricing
D. Currency
41: How often would an active options trader perform technical analysis?
A. Once per month
B. It is an ongoing process performed during the hours after each day's activity.
C. Never. It does not apply to options.
D. Possibly weekly
42: What is the ideal number of portfolios for an experienced trader?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 20
D. 100
43: What is the most classic type of options trading?
A. Using sophisticated techniques such as Iron Condor
B. Short selling stocks
C. Buying call options and selling after an increase in value
D. Selling naked call options
44: What is the purpose of candlestick charting?
A. It tells the user exactly when to buy.
B. It gives the trader something to do in their spare time.
C. It is required in order to trade stock options.
D. A lot of price information such as open, close, high and low can be relayed in a graph.
45: How does the "Iron Condor" technique limit the downside?
A. The shorted options all have the same strike prices.
B. It is another term for short selling stock.
C. The shorted options have different strike prices, creating a stagger.
D. It involves selling calls while buying calls at the same time.
46: Which of the following would be a good example of risk mitigation?
A. Purchasing only small cap stocks
B. Purchasing stock options in three industries
C. Purchasing stock options all in one industry
D. Purchasing only options on blue chip stocks
47: What is portfolio management?
A. Having a suite of investments to reach a goal while minimizing risk
B. Buying shares all in one industry
C. Actively trading stocks in your portfolio
D. Selling off securities which are not performing
48: Why is it important to manage risk when trading stock options?
A. Because it is a good general policy
B. Because it guarantees no losses
C. Because it is required by tax law
D. Because of the risky nature of stock options
49: What would be the risk tolerance level of a retired government worker in general?
A. High
B. Moderate
C. Varies indefinitely
D. Low
50: Why would someone sell call options on a security they own?
A. Because they believe the price will rise
B. Because they don't really own the security
C. Because they are writing naked calls
D. Because they believe the security price will fall, creating profit from the calls
51: What is a "call"?
A. An options contract which gives the holder the right to buy a stock at a predetermined price
B. A stock which is long
C. An options contract which gives the holder the right to sell a stock at a predetermined price
D. Placing an order to buy options
52: What is a "strangle"?
A. Selling only call options
B. Buying or selling a put and a call with different strike prices
C. Buying a call and selling a put
D. Buying two call options at different strike prices
53: What would an investor who is employing the straddle technique hope to happen?
A. That the price will move in a tight range, not varying much
B. That they can sell the underlying stock for more than the option makes
C. That the option will expire without selling
D. That the price will move drastically in one direction, up or down
54: Why would an investor not utilize an options trading strategy?
A. Because they cost money
B. Because of the belief that they do not work, and it is a wasted effort
C. Because not enough data is available
D. Because they are only for the wealthy
55: What is a covered call?
A. Selling put options
B. Short selling stocks
C. Selling a call option when the underlying stock is not owned
D. Selling a call stock option when the underlying stock is owned
56: What is meant by a "butterfly" trading strategy?
A. Selling two options either put or call
B. Complex trading strategy involving buying two calls and selling two calls
C. Buying two put options at different strike prices
D. Selling only call options on stock you own
57: What is the "expiration date"?
A. The date on which the trader's license expires
B. The date on which a broker's account expires
C. The date on which the underlying stock no longer remains tradable
D. The date on which the options contract expires and can no longer be executed or traded
58: What does an options trader look for when charting?
A. Options that trade in a very narrow band
B. Options which have completely unpredictable pricing
C. Options which have broken the trend
D. Options with near term expiration dates
59: Which of the following would not be an example of managing risk?
A. Buying both call and put options on a variety of stocks
B. Applying trading strategies
C. Buying only call options on one stock
D. Selling calls on a security which is owned
60: Why might an options trader have portfolios based on expiration?
A. Because it makes it easier to manage
B. Because the only way to classify options is by expiration
C. Because options expiring in the near term need to be monitored more actively
D. Because it reduces the tax obligation
61: What is the offset to limiting downside?
A. Unlimited profits
B. Often limited profits
C. No profits
D. Risky tax implications
62: What is a sideways chart?
A. When a stock price varies drastically
B. When a stock price moves within a relatively narrow band
C. When a stock is losing value quickly
D. When a stock has just had news come out
63: What would an investor using the Black Scholes model be doing?
A. Looking for arbitrage opportunities
B. Looking to sell call options
C. Trying to find brokerages that charge lower commission for their transactions
D. Calculating the implied price of an option based on several factors
64: How would an options investor diversify their portfolio?
A. By holding both call and put options
B. By holding options with varying expiration dates
C. By selling and buying options
D. All of the above
65: What happens to an investment if risk is mitigated properly?
A. Nothing specific happens to any one investment; risk mitigation is an overall portfolio tool.
B. The stocks you purchase are guaranteed to increase.
C. It makes for a zero sum game, with no losses or profits.
D. Risk is assigned to someone else.
66: Which of the following is the least risky investment in options?
A. Selling options which expire in the following month
B. Selling options which expire one year from now
C. Selling call options with an expiration of two months from now without owning the underlying stock
D. Selling call options with an expiration of one month from now without owning the underlying stock
67: What does the Monte Carlo method of pricing options attempt to do?
A. Give the options trader a specific guideline on what to buy
B. Tell an options trader what market to trade in
C. Tell the options trader if he should sell puts
D. Calculate a price based on weighting potential outcomes
68: What is a "put"?
A. Selling by an options contract holder of their contract
B. An options contract which gives the holder the right to sell the underlying stock at a predetermined price
C. Selling by a stock holder of their stock in order to buy options
D. An options contract which gives the holder the right to buy the underlying stock at a predetermined price
69: Why are younger people more apt to take on riskier investments?
A. Because they have a longer time horizon to allow for the risky investments to increase over time, and are immune to the short term changes
B. Because they do not know the value of money in the long run
C. Because they have less knowledge and do not know the potential for loss
D. Because there are short term gains to be made
70: How is risk measured?
A. By classifying it into one of three levels of risk
B. Individually, each investor assesses their own risk tolerance level
C. As a letter; a,b,c or d
D. Someone else assesses your risk level
71: What is the relationship between fundamental and technical analyses?
A. They are mutually exclusive, and an analyst would use one or the other, never both.
B. They must both be used together.
C. They can both be used to complement each other, but not together.
D. They are very exclusive techniques that should both be avoided.
72: Why do investors often expect the beginning of the year stock prices to rise?
A. Because new year means companies can restart and forget the past
B. Because management is always more driven
C. Because the year end sales typically bolster profits and increase demand
D. Because employee cuts are made reducing expenses typically after the holidays
73: What is meant by a "bear market"?
A. When expectations are that the market will fall
B. When there is a temporary increase in stock prices
C. When there is a temporary decrease in stock prices
D. When expectations are that the market will rise
74: What does heavy volume trading indicate?
A. That the expiration date is near
B. That the current market price is wrong
C. That insiders know something no one else does
D. Typically that news has come out regarding the underlying stock
75: Which of the following situations has the least risk?
A. Short selling stock
B. Selling naked put options
C. Selling naked call options
D. Selling covered call options
76: What is an options contract?
A. Another term for stock
B. A contract to buy or sell a stock at a predetermined price
C. Insurance
D. A contract with your broker to buy and sell stocks
77: What is an "option spread"?
A. The same as butterfly trading strategy
B. Buying and selling options of two different companies
C. Buying and selling stock options at different strike prices for the same security
D. Selling call options on securities
78: What is the primary goal of technical analysis?
A. Identifying trends to predict near term price movements
B. Helping build a retirement plan
C. Identifying stocks with potential for large increases in the next two years
D. Finding indications of interest rate direction
79: What is meant "short selling"?
A. Selling less stock than is currently owned
B. Selling a stock without owning it, with the expectation of purchasing the stock at a later date at a cheaper price
C. Buying call options on a security
D. Buying put options on a security
80: Which of the following items are stored in the flash recovery area?
A. Datafiles
B. Undo segments
C. Datafile copies
D. Archived redo log files
81: For which two types of tablespaces can proactive tablespace alerts be set?
A. Locally managed
B. Dictionary-managed
C. Read-only
D. Online
82: Which data dictionary view should be queried to find the following information about a user?
1.Whether the users account has expired
2.The users default tablespace name
3.The users profile name
A. DBA_USERS only
B. DBA_USERS and DBA_PROFILES
C. DBA_USERS and DBA_TABLESPACES
D. DBA_USERS, DBA_TS_QUOTAS, and DBA_PROFILES
83: Where can the nondefault parameters be found when the instance is started?
A. Alert log
B. Online redo log
C. Archiver redo log
D. SYSTEM user's trace file
84: Who will be the owner of the job, if you create a job in user SCOTTs schema?
A. SYS will be the owner of the job
B. You will be the owner of the job
C. PUBLIC will be the owner of the job
D. SCOTT will be the owner of the job
85: An index on the PASSPORT_RECORDS table has to be created. It contains 10 million rows of data. The key columns have low cardinality. The queries generated against this table use a combination of multiple WHERE conditions involving the OR operator.Which of the following index will be used for this criteria?
A. Bitmap
B. Unique
C. Partitioned
D. Reverse key
86: Which option lists the correct hierarchy of storage structures, from largest to smallest?
A. Segment, extent, tablespace, data block
B. Data block, extent, segment, tablespace
C. Tablespace, extent, data block, segment
D. Tablespace, segment, extent, data block
87: Which DBMS_LOGMNR feature facilitates the automatic adding of redo log files for mining?
A. REMOVE_LOGFILE
B. CONTINUOUS_MINE
C. NO_ROWID_IN_STMT
D. AUTOMATIC_LOGFILE
88: What happens once the DBA disables the flash recovery area?
A. The RMAN will continue to be able to access the files in the flash recovery area
B. The RMAN will be unable to access the files in the flash recovery area
C. The RMAN will be unable to access the automatic space management features of the flash
recovery area
D. The RMAN can use only the automatic space management features of the flash recovery area
89: What should be confirmed before changing the CURSOR_SPACE_FOR_TIME parameter in the initialization file to TRUE?
A. The TIMED_STATISTICS parameter is set to TRUE
B. The hit percentage in the buffer cache is at least 95%
C. The OPEN_CURSOR parameter is set to at least twice the default value
D. The value in the RELOADS column of V$LIBRARYCACHE is consistently zero
90: What will the command EXECUTE DBMS_SCHEDULER.PURGE_LOG(); do?
A. Purge only all the window logs
B. Purge only all the job logs
C. Purge all window and job logs
D. Purge only yesterday's job logs
91: Which graphical DBA administration tool should be used to tune an Oracle database?
A. SQL*Plus
B. Oracle Enterprise Manager
C. Oracle Universal Installer
D. Oracle Database Configuration Assistant
92: Which of the following is mandatory when using the easy connect naming method?
A. Host name
B. Database name
C. Service name
D. Port number
93: Which initialization parameter specifies the location of the alert log file?
A. UTL_FILE_DIR
B. USER_DUMP_DEST
C. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST
D. BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST
94: In an Oracle database environment, SGA is created:
A. When the database is created
B. When an instance is started
C. When the database is mounted
D. When a user process is started
95: Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with regard to CATALOG command in Oracle 10g?
A. It can be used to add backup pieces and image copies on disk to the RMAN repository
B. It can be used to catalog a file that belongs to a different database
C. It can be used to catalog a backup piece that exists on an sbt device
96: The SQL Access Advisor is managed:
A. Through the DBMS_SQLTUNE package
B. Through the DBMS_ADVISOR package
C. Through the SQL_TUNE package
D. Through the DBA_ADVISOR package
97: ______________ is mandatory for using the easy connect naming method.
A. Host name
B. Database name
C. Service name
D. Port number
98: Which of the following types of commands is used to move data files between Oracle ASM disk groups?
A. RMAN Commands
B. OMF Commands
C. Operating System Commands
D. Logical Volume Manager Commands
99: Which of the following statements are correct for using the RESETLOGS option?
A. You don't need to back up the database
B. You must back up the database right away
C. You can use archive redo logs from an older incarnation of the database
D. You cannot use archive redo logs from an older incarnation of the database
100: Which of the following data dictionary views should be used to get a list of object privileges for all the database users?
A. DBA_TAB_PRIVS
B. ALL_TAB_PRIVS
C. USER_TAB_PRIVS
D. ALL_TAB_PRIVS_MADE
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