Communications and HVAC MCQs
Communications and HVAC MCQs
Try to answer these 99 Communications and HVAC MCQs and check your understanding of the Communications and HVAC subject.
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1: What is the formula for absolute pressure?
A. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure - atmospheric pressure
B. Absolute pressure = 2 x Gauge pressure
C. Gauge pressure = 2 x atmospheric pressure
D. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
2: What is an accumulator?
A. A device that takes in air and blows it out
B. A device that stores electrical energy
C. A device that assessment the value of something
D. A storage tank that receives liquid refrigerant from the evaporator and prevents it from flowing back into the compressor.
3: What is the full form of AC?
A. Authority control
B. Amplitude modulation
C. Alternating Current
D. Air Conditioner
4: AC fans are powered by
A. A DC motor
B. An AC power supply
C. An AC motor
D. An AC generator
5: What does ACIS stand for?
A. Association for Computing Machinery's International Science
B. Airedale Centre for Integrated Solutions
C. Airedale Controls Integrated Systems
D. Available Computing for Interdisciplinary Science
6: What does ACRIB stand for?
A. Air Conditioning, Refrigeration, and Insulation Board
B. Association of Certified Refrigeration Installers and Technicians
C. Air Conditioning and Refrigeration Industry Board
D. Association of Club Referees in Britain
7: What is the process of reducing heat through a change in air pressure caused by volume expansion?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Adiabatic cooling
D. Conduction
8: What is an air conditioner?
A. A device that removes heat from air
B. A device that adds heat to air
C. A device that controls the amount of humidity in the air
D. An appliance, system, or mechanism designed to control temperature, humidity and air quality in a defined space.
9: What does an air-cooled system use as the transfer medium to reject heat from the refrigerant in the condenser?
A. Water
B. Steam
C. Air
D. Ice
10: What is an air diffuser?
A. A type of light bulb
B. Device for makingrequest for help
C. A device that makes a fluid heavier
D. Air distribution outlet or grill designed to direct and develop balanced airstreams.
11: What does an air handling unit do?
A. Provide suitable ventilation and extract
B. Provide cooling
C. Provide air conditioning
D. Provide heating
12: What is the meaning of Ambient?
A. Increased atmospheric conditions of temperature & pressure
B. Abnormal atmospheric conditions of temperature & pressure
C. Normal atmospheric conditions of temperature & pressure
D. Decreased atmospheric conditions of temperature & pressure
13: What is the application?
A. The act of applying pressure
B. The action of putting something into operation
C. The location or site where an air conditioning/cooling system or unit is to be installed
D. The process of applying for something
14: What does ASHRAE stand for?
A. American Society of Heating and Air-Conditioning Engineers
B. American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers
C. Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigerating Engineers
D. American Standard of Heating and Air-Conditioning Engineers
15: Azeotropes can be separated into its parts by which process?
A. Cracking
B. Dehydration
C. Fractional distillation
D. Distillation
16: What is the temperature called where a liquid mixture boils and produces a vapour with exactly the same composition as the liquid?
A. Melting point
B. Boiling point
C. Azeotropic point
D. Freezing point
17: What is BEMS?
A. British Educational Measurement Services
B. Building Equipment Management System
C. Bureau of Economic Measurement and Statistics
D. Building Energy Management System
18: What is the maximum number of refrigerants that can be blended in a regular blend?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 2
D. 10
19: What is BREEAM?
A. BRE Environmental Assessment Methodology
B. Building Research Establishment Environmental Assessment Methodology
C. The world’s longest established and most widely used method of assessing, rating, and certifying the sustainability of buildings
D. Building Research Establishment
20: How long has BREEAM been established for?
A. Since 1996
B. Since 1999
C. Since 2002
D. Since 1991
21: What is the quantity of heat required to be given to or taken from 1lb. of water in British Thermal Units?
A. 1 m
B. 1°C
C. 1 kg
D. 1°F
22: What is the bubble point?
A. The temperature at which a refrigerant gas starts to liquefy.
B. The pressure at which a refrigerant gas starts to liquefy.
C. The pressure at which a refrigerant liquid starts to vaporise.
D. The temperature at which a refrigerant liquid starts to vaporise.
23: What is a capillary tube?
A. A device used to measure the flow of blood
B. A device used to measure the flow of air.
C. A metering device consisting of a small diameter tube designed to restrict flow.
D. A device used to measure the flow of water
24: What is the best use for a capillary tube?
A. Constant ambient conditions
B. To measure pressure
C. To create vacuum
D. To meter flow
25: What is the Cascade system?
A. A system with two or more refrigerant circuits working in series to provide the designated level of cooling.
B. A system that uses a single refrigerant circuit to provide the designated level of cooling.
C. A system with two or more refrigerant circuits working in parallel to provide the designated level of cooling.
D. A system that does not use refrigerant to provide the designated level of cooling.
26: What is the ideal application for a cassette air conditioning unit?
A. Small open plan areas
B. Large open plan areas or irregular shaped rooms
C. Outdoor areas
D. Regular shaped rooms
27: When were CFCs banned?
A. 1995
B. 2000
C. 2010
D. 1985
28: What is the full form of CFCs?
A. Chlorofluorocarbons
B. Chlorofluorocarbonated Hydrocarbons
C. Chlorinated Fluorocarbons
D. Carbonated Fluorine Compounds
29: What does CFM stand for?
A. Cubic feet per minute
B. Cubic furlongs per minute
C. Central foundry machine
D. Cut forget me nots
30: What is a change of state?
A. A change from one phase to another – solid, liquid or gas.
B. A change in size or shape.
C. A physical or chemical property.
D. A physical or chemical change.
31: What is the primary cooling medium in a chilled water system?
A. Water
B. Glycol solutions
C. Refrigerant
D. Air
32: What is a chilled water system?
A. A type of air conditioning system using air (or glycol solutions) as a primary cooling medium.
B. A type of heating system using air (or glycol solutions) as a primary heating medium.
C. A type of heating system using water (or glycol solutions) as a secondary heating medium.
D. A type of air conditioning system using water (or glycol solutions) as a secondary cooling medium.
33: How does a chiller work?
A. By cooling a secondary cooling medium
B. By removing heat from a secondary cooling medium
C. By circulating a secondary cooling medium
D. By heating a secondary cooling medium
34: What does CIBSE stand for?
A. Chartered Institution of Building Services Engineers
B. Construction Institute of Building Services Engineers
C. Chartered Institute of Building and Safety Engineering
D. Chartered Institute of Business Science and Economics
35: What does CITB stand for?
A. Council of Industrial Training Boards
B. Children in The Theater Bureau
C. Creative Industries Training Board
D. Construction Industry Training Board
36: What is the website of CITB?
A. www.tibc.uk
B. www.ctib.uk
C. www.citb.co.uk
D. www.cibt.uk
37: What is a clean room?
A. An environment with a low level of environmental pollutants
B. A room without windows
C. A room that is physically clean
D. A room without furniture
38: What is the other name for close control/climate control?
A. Precision Air Conditioning
B. Whole-house fan
C. Central Air Conditioning
D. Humidifier
39: What provides heat transfer to air when mounted inside an air handling unit or ductwork?
A. Condenser
B. Coil
C. Evaporator
D. Compressor
40: What is a cold aisle?
A. The front of the server racks
B. A layout design for server racks and other computing equipment in a data centre.
C. A measure of temperature
D. A type of CPU
41: Comfort air conditioning systems are designed for _______ .
A. The comfort of people, livestock, etc.
B. The protection of computer-based electrical systems
C. The comfort of people only
D. Other process operations requiring close control of the environment
42: What does commercial air conditioning provide?
A. Suitable ventilation and space conditioning
B. Air conditioning for small buildings
C. Air conditioning for private homes
D. Air conditioning for public buildings
43: What does commissioning a service ensure?
A. That equipment will be replaced if it breaks
B. That the system is running at optimal performance
C. That equipment is set up to function correctly, as per the specification.
D. That the equipment is clean and free of dirt
44: What is the key component of the refrigeration system?
A. Receiver
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Compressor
45: What is Condensate?
A. Moisture removed from the air when it is cooled below its dew point
B. A gas
C. A material used for insulation
D. A type of HVAC system
46: What is the dew point?
A. The highest temperature a substance can reach before it changes to a gas
B. The temperature at which condensation will occur
C. The temperature at which a gas will change to a liquid
D. The lowest temperature a substance can reach before it changes to a solid
47: What does a condenser do?
A. Increases the temperature of a refrigerant liquid
B. Removes the superheat of compression, condensing the refrigerant gas into a high pressure liquid.
C. Converts a refrigerant gas into a refrigerant liquid
D. Decreases the pressure of a refrigerant gas
48: What is a condensing unit?
A. A device that is used to humidify air
B. A part of a refrigeration/air conditioning system comprising a compressor, motor and condenser heat exchanger
C. A device that is used to heat air
D. A device that is used to cool air
49: What is the transfer of heat by the movement of electrons called?
A. Radiation
B. Friction
C. Convection
D. Conduction
50: In a CAV system, what is varied to meet the thermal loads of a space?
A. Supply air temperature
B. Air flow rate
C. Thermal loads
D. Supply air flow rate
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